1
Q
What destination weather is required to take off on a 135 flight?
A
Cannot t/o unless current or forecast weather at ETA is at or above IFR landing minimums.
2
Q
What are the weather requirements to begin an instrument approach (135)?
A
- Must have approved weather reporting.
- Latest weather at or above IFR landing minimums for that airport.
3
Q
What does OPSPEC C077 say about weather requirements?
A
Turbojet operations require an approved source of reported weather.
4
Q
What does OPSPEC C064 say about the weather?
A
Prohibits IFR terminal operations in uncontrolled airspace (Class G) w/o an approved source of weather.
5
Q
What are “Eligible On-Demand” weather requirements?
A
Destination or Alternate have approved weather reporting, + local altimeter.
No weather at the destination? Must declare an alternate.
6
Q
What weather is controlling?
A
The worst weather – Chance/Occasional/Intermittent/Tempo/ Possibility
7
Q
When is an Alternate required?
A
ETA +/- 1 hour:
- Ceiling;1,500 above lowest circling MDA;
- No circling? Then 1,500 above lowest published min, or 2,000 above airport elevation – whichever is higher.
- Visibility; 3sm or 2sm above the lowest applicable approach – whichever is higher.
8
Q
What are the weather requirements for an airport to qualify as an Alternate for 135 operations?
A
- Must have weather reporting
- Approved for filing as an alternate ( no “NA” block), WATCH for notes on “non-standard” alternate minimums
- One (1) NAVAID: +400 DH/MDA and +1sm;
- Two (2) NAVAIDs*: +200 DH/MDA to the higher approach, and 1/2 sm to the highest Cat 1 vis
Two different identifiers – could be the same frequency
9
Q
For Alternate Filing purposes, what is a “Navigation Facility”?
A
A different identifier could be the same frequency, straight in approaches only, must be to a “suitable” runway – length, w/in wind limits, etc.
10
Q
What are Standard IFR Take-Off Minimums?
A
Standard, 1 or 2 engines: 1 sm/5000RVR
NOTE: check “T” for non-standard take-off minimums
11
Q
What OPSPEC covers “Lower than Standard” Take Off Minima?
A
- If you are authorized “lower than standard” take off minimums, it would be noted in C057 AND C079
- Two (2) pilots are required for lower than standard passenger operations
Single Pilot operations are not authorized “lower than standard minimums
12
Q
If you have OPSPEC C079, what else do you need for lower than standard takeoff minimums with TDZ RVR 1600/RVV 1/4sm?
A
Must have one of:
- HIRL, or
- CL, or
- RCLM, or
- “Adequate visual reference” to continuously identify the takeoff surface
13
Q
If you have OPSPEC C079, what else do you need for lower than standard takeoff minimums with TDZ RVR 1200/Mid 1200/Roll-out 1000?
A
Must have one of:
- Daylight
- HIRL or,
- CL, or
- RCLM
- Night
- HIRL or
- CL
14
Q
If you have OPSPEC C079, what else do you need for lower than standard takeoff minimums with an RVR of less than 1600 ft?
A
>RVR 1600,
- TDZ controlling
- 2 pilots (no “AP in Lieu…”)
- ADI, DG, VSI, Altimeter at each pilot station w/independent power for ADI and DG,
- PIC & SIC must have 100 hours in make and model
15
Q
When can a Single Engine aircraft use “Lower than Standard” Takeoff Minima?
A
Single-Engine passenger not authorized.
Could be authorized Turbine, all-cargo operations.
16
Q
Can you take off with the weather at your departure field is below landing mins?
A
Cannot t/o if weather less than landing minimums at departure airport – unless there is an alternate airport w/in 1 hour at normal cruise (aka Takeoff Alternate).
17
Q
Can you continue an Instrument Approach after the weather goes below mins past the FAF?
A
Yes, If at DH/MDA the actual weather (visibility) is equal to or greater than landing visibility, you may continue the approach.
18
Q
What is the lowest Cat 1 landing visibility?
A
1800 RVR or 1/2 sm
19
Q
What takes precedence, RVR or Tower Visibility?
A
RVR
20
Q
What is needed to descent below DH/MDA?
A
- Landing “environment” in sight
- Flight visibility > minimums
- Aircraft in position to make a normal approach and landing
- Red termination/side row bars visible to go below 100 ft TDZ
21
Q
What are Single Pilot Takeoff Minimums?
A
The lowest authorized straight-in Cat 1 IFR landing minimums for that airport – IF AUTHORIZED IN OPSPEC C057.
NOTE: SINGLE PILOT, NOT SINGLE ENGINE – Single Engine not authorized below Standard T/O minimums
22
Q
What are the requirements for Two Pilots Takeoff Minimums (w/C057) – 1/4 mile or 1600 RVR?
A
CO57 Authorization:
- 1/4 mile or RVR 1600 and at least one of:
- HIRL, CL, RCLM, or
- “Adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface”.
23
Q
What are the requirements for Two Pilots Takeoff Minimums (w/C057) – RVR 1200?
A
CO57 Authorization:
- TDZ RVR 1200 and Rollout RVR 1000
- Must have both CL and 2 RVR reporting systems
24
Q
What are the requirements for Two Pilots Takeoff Minimums (w/C079) – – RVR 600?
A
CO57 Authorization:
- TDZ RVR 600, Mid RVR 600 and Rollout RVR 600
- Must have CL, HIRL, and
- 2 of 3 RVR reporting systems must be working
25
Are **reduced takeoff mins** allowed with "**AP in lieu of SIC**"?
Not Authorized
26
What are the **reduced takeoff mins** **pilot requirements**?
* PIC **_and_** SIC must have **100 hours** in specific make & model, *plus*
* **Completed company training** program for reduced takeoff minimums
27
What is the destination requirement for **weather reporting** (_NOT_ Eligible On-Demand)?
Must have weather reporting from an "**approved source**".
28
What **weather is required** to **begin** an Instrument Approach?
Cannot start approach (pass IAF), if the weather is below approach minimums -- **VISIBILITY is controlling** (ceilings are "considered").
29
What can you do, **after beginning approach**, and the weather goes **below mins**?
**Prior to FAF**, you execute the missed approach procedure (can climb early, but must fly the ground track/cannot turn early).
Can continue **past FAF** and land IF upon reaching MDA/DA or DH the **actual flight visibility is equal to or greater** than landing minimums.
30
What is the lowest authorized straight-in **CAT 1 mins**?
1800 RVR (TDZ) or 1/2sm
31
If the airport does **not have RVR,** what are the **lowest mins**?
Tower vis of **1/2 sm**
32
Under **part 91**, can you start an instrument approach if the reported weather is **below minimums**?
Can start the approach below minimums, **and land** **_if_**:
* Your inflight visibility is greater than minimum visibility,
* You see approach lights and runway,
* You're in a position to make a "**normal**" landing
33
What is the FAA definition of "**Flight Visibility?**"
The **average** forward horizontal **distance** from the cockpit in flight in which prominent unlighted objects may be seen and identified during the day, and lighted objects by night.
34
What is **IFR Landing requirements** (weather)?
No pilot may land when the **FLIGHT VISIBILITY is less than published minimums**.
35
When do you execute a **Missed Approach?**
1. Below MDA or after MAP **_and_** FLIGHT VISIBILITY less than published
2. Whenever an identifiable part of the airport **is not** distinctly visible during a **circling maneuver**
36
On an instrument approach, when can you descend **below 100'** above TDZ?
Must have:
1. **Red Terminating Bars**, or
2. **Red Side Row Bars** are distinctly visible and identifiable
37
What is **RCLM**?
**R**unway **C**enter**l**ine **M**arkings
38
What is **CL**?
**C**enterline **L**ighting
39
What is **RVR**?
**R**unway **V**isual **R**ange
40
What are Approach **Category A** Speeds?
\<91 knots
41
What are Approach **Category B** Speeds?
91-121 knots
42
What are Approach **Category C** Speeds?
121-141 knots
43
What are Approach **Category D** Speeds?
141-166 knots
44
What are Approach **Category E** Speeds?
166\> knots
45
What is **RVV**?
**R**unway **V**isual **V**alue
46
When can you **descend** below **DH or MDA**?
* Continuously in a position land at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers -- *_within_* the touchdown zone
* Flight visibility _\>_ approach visibility
* CAT I, at least one of the following:
1. Approach light system
2. Threshold
3. Threshold markings
4. Threshold lights
5. REIL
6. VASI
7. Touchdown zone/markings
8. Touchdown lights
9. Runway/runway markings
10. Runway lights
47
The IFR **landing weather** rule is?
No pilot may land when the Flight Visibility is less than the visibility for the approach.
48
When are you required to **execute** a **missed approach**?
* Below MDA or reach MAP
* Requirements to operate below DH or MDA are not met
* For circling approaches, any identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible during a circling maneuver, unless due to normal banking
49
What is a "**High Mins**" Captain?
New captains with \< 100 hours PIC in Turbine time.
50
What are "**High Mins" Captain weather** limitations?
Must add 100' to MDA or DH, and 1/2sm to visibility.
## Footnote
100 & 1/2 added to all airports (destination & alternate) -- **_BUT_** does not change the requirements to designate an airport as an alternate (that doesn't change)
51
How can a 135 On-Demand Charter flight operate at an airport that **doesn't have weather reporting capability**?
You file to an airport with weather reporting, then cancel and go VFR to your destination.
* Must be able to maintain VFR visibility and cloud clearances
* You may be restricted by OPSPEC C077
* Check your GOM
52
What are the **limitations** on **landing minimums** for a Turbojet?
OPSPEC C054
* Cannot begin approach if \<3/4sm or 4000 RVR *_unless_* the pilot has been specifically qualified
* If qualified for lower landing minimums:
* +15% Landing Field Length
* Precision runway markings *_or_* Centerline lights for that runway
53
Can you **depart IFR** if there is **no weather reporting** at your point of departure?
No
## Footnote
Terminal operations **IFR** from airports w/o official weather reported are **not permitted** (OPSEC C054, 064, 077)
Do not confuse with approval to conduct VFR operations (135.213) -- so you could (if the weather allows) depart VFR and pick up your clearance later.
54
Your Sea Level destination's TAF for 45 minutes after your ETA is 30 BKN, 3 with a TEMPO condition of 10 BKN 3BR.
Do you need an alternate?
Yes
## Footnote
Assuming the weather is +/- 1 hour of your ETA.
"Worst" weather is the Tempo condition and drives the requirement
The ceiling must be greater than 2,132' (1,500+632)
Visibility must be at least 3 miles or 2.5 whichever is greater
*So visibility doesn't drive the requirement for an alternate, but ceiling does.*
55
KASE's weather at your ETA is 30SCT, 50BKN 10HZ. Can you use KASE as your alternate?
NO -- Alternate "NA"
56
What are your **Transponder** airspace requirements?
* At or above 10,000 feet MSL
* Excluding airspace below 2,500 feet AGL
* Class A
* Class B
* Inside Class B,
* Within 30 nm of the center of Class B (SFC to 10,000 feet)
* Class C
* Within and above Class C up to 10,000 feet
* Within 10 nm of certain designated airports
57
What is an **M.E.A.**?
**M**inimum **E**nroute **A**ltitude
## Footnote
Assures navigation facility coverage.
1,000 feet obstacle clearance over flat terrain.
2000 feet obstacle clearance over mountainous terrain.
58
What is an **MEA Gap**?
A gap in navigation ground station coverage.
59
What is **MOCA**?
**M**inimum **O**bstacle **C**learance **A**ltitude
## Footnote
Assures navigational coverage and obstacle clearance within 22 nm of the NAVAID.
*Not a chocolate drink -- that's Mocha*
60
What is **MAA**?
**M**aximum **A**uthorized **A**ltitude
61
What is **MCA**?
**M**inimum **C**rossing **A**ltitude
## Footnote
The altitude you must be at (or before) crossing a navaid or intersection
62
What is **MRA**?
**M**inimum **R**eception **A**ltitude
## Footnote
Minimum altitude of which off-airway navigation stations can be received.
*Example: cross-radial*
63
What is **OROCA**?
**O**ff-**R**oute **O**bstruction **C**learance **A**ltitude
## Footnote
Provides same obstacle clearance as MEA (1,000 flat/2,000 mountainous), but without the ground station signal coverage.
64
What is **MVA**?
**M**inimum **V**ectoring **A**ltitude
## Footnote
Lowest MSL altitude ATC will vector you -- only ATC knows that altitude.
65
What is **MEF**?
**M**aximum **E**levation **F**igure
## Footnote
It's the top of the highest feature (plus some), in each quadrangle on a Sectional Chart.
66
When do you need a **Mode C** Transponder **with altitude** reporting capability?
* Class A, Class B, Class C
* Within 30 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace (from the surface to 10,000 MSL)
* Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of B and C up to 10,000 MSL
67
What does a **solid red light gun signal** mean?
* **Airborne**: give way to other traffic and continue circling.
* **On the ground**: Stop.
69
If not depicted, where does **Class E** airspace **start**?
Typically starts at 1,200’ AGL unless otherwise designated.
70
What are the **Standard Service Volumes** for VOR/DME/TACAN?
Terminal:
* 1,000' - 12,000' AGL
* 25nm
Low:
* 1,000' - 18,000' AGL
* 40 nm
High:
* 1,000 - 14,500' AGL
* 40 nm
* 14,500' - 18,000' AGL
* 100nm
* 18,000' - 45,000' AGL
* 130 nm
* 45,000' - 60,000' AGL
* 100 nm
72
What is a **runway incursion?**
Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
## Footnote
*ICAO definition adopted in '07.*
73
What are **three** major **areas** contributing to **runway incursions**?
1. Communications
2. Airport Knowledge
3. Cockpit Procedures
74
What is the **main cause of CFIT**?
The crew's loss of situational awareness.
75
What are **three major causes** of **runway incursions**?
1. Failure to comply with ATC instructions
2. Unfamiliarity with airport
3. Nonconformance with standard operating procedures
76
What is an **airport** "**hot spot**"?
An intersection with a history of or potential for incursions. They are designated as open circles or polygons labeled "HS 1", "HS 2", etc.
77
What is the difference between **movement** and **non-movement areas**?
Movement areas are all taxiways and runways and are under the jurisdiction of the control tower.
78
How is the **boundary** between a **movement and non-movement** area marked?
Two yellow lines, one solid and one dashed.
The dashed line is on the movement side.
79
If a takeoff clearance is not received within 90 seconds after receiving a "line up and wait" instruction, what should you do?
Contact **ATC** immediately.
80
If you are on a **runway** or taxiway, and **radio communication** with ATC **fails**, what should you do?
Turn toward the tower, flash your landing lights, and wait for a light signal. You can also call them on a cell phone.
81
What is an **enhanced taxiway centerline** marking?
Yellow dashed lines on either side of the normal solid taxiway centerline, to warn you of an upcoming runway.
They extend 150 feet prior to a runway holding position marking.
82
What are **wig-wag lights**?
A pair of flashing elevated lights installed on either side of the taxiway, near the holding position sign.
83
What must you **consider** before accepting a **LAHSO** clearance?
* Runway length
* Aircraft landing performance
* Runway slopes
* And if allowed per your OPSPECs
84
What does an ATC instruction to "**Hold short of the ILS critical area**" mean?
Hold short of the yellow ladder marking crossing the taxiway, so that your airplane does not interfere with instrument landing broadcast signals.
85
What is a **yellow dashed line** extending the width of the taxiway?
A taxiway/taxiway intersection. ATC may request that you hold short of this line.
86
What **colors** are runway edge, centerline, and end lights?
* **Edge**: white.
* **End**: red for departing aircraft, green for landing aircraft.
* **Centerline**: White until the last 3,000 feet, then alternating with red for 2,000 feet, then all red for the last 1,000 feet.
87
What **color** are **taxiway edge** lights?
Blue
88
How do you get the most recent, **up-to-date TFRs**?
Telephone briefing
89
What are **MTRs**?
**M**ilitary **T**raining **R**outes
## Footnote
Use caution when crossing them.
3 digit identifiers mean above 1,500 AGL
4 digits identifiers mean below 1,500 AGL
VR: VFR route
IR: IFR route
90
What is a **TRSA**?
An "other" airspace that offers Class C services.
## Footnote
Participation is non-mandatory.
91
What are the **two star markings** on a chart?
* **Star over airport circle** is rotating beacon sunset to sunrise.
* **Star in the information box** is a non-24 hour control tower.
## Footnote
A white star over the airport symbol = rotating beacon in operation from sunset to sunrise.
92
What do the **runways** outside of a **circle** mean on a **sectional** chart?
Hard-surface runway length greater than 8,069 feet.
93
What's the **difference** between CTAF, UNICOM, and MULTICOM?
* **CTAF** is the voice frequency used to communicate between pilots, at airports with no control tower.
* **UNICOM** is a private, licensed ground base station that can communicate with aircraft at airports with no tower or FSS.
* **MULTICOM** is 122.9 or 122.95, and is used as a default CTAF.
## Footnote
CTAF is most often a UNICOM frequency.
94
What is the **difference** between few clouds, scattered, broken, and overcast?
* **Few** = 1-2/8 (octals) of the sky covered with clouds
* **Scattered** = 3-4/8
* **Broken** = 5-7/8
* **Overcast** = 8/8
95
What are the **entry requirements** for A, B, C, and D airspace?
* **Class A**: instrument-rated, ATC clearance, mode C transponder, and two-way radio.
* **Class B**: private pilot or student with endorsement, ATC clearance, mode C transponder, and two-way radio.
* **Class C**: radio contact, mode C transponder, two-way radio.
* **Class D**: radio contact, two-way radio.
96
What do **light gun signals** mean (ground/flight)?
_ON GROUND:_
* solid red: stop
* flashing red: clear the runway
* flashing white: return to starting position at the airport
* solid green: cleared for takeoff
* flashing green: cleared to taxi
* flashing red and green: exercise extreme caution
_IN FLIGHT_:
* solid red: continue circling, give way to other aircraft
* flashing red: airport unsafe, do not land
* solid green: cleared to land
* flashing green: cleared to approach the airport
* flashing red and green: exercise extreme caution
97
What are the **shapes** of B, C, and D airspace?
* **Class B** can be any shape but is usually an inverted wedding cake.
* **Class C** generally extends to 4,000' AGL, has a core surface area with a radius of 5 nautical miles, an upper "shelf" area with a radius of 10 nautical miles, and a procedural "outer area" with a radius of 20 nautical miles.
* **Class D** is generally a cylinder extending up to 2,500' AGL, and an outer radius of 4 nautical miles.
98
What are the basic aviation **speed limits**?
* Below 10,000' MSL: 250 knots.
* At or below 2,500 AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace, below Class B airspace, and VFR corridor through Class B airspace: 200 knots.
99
What **color** is a civilian **rotating beacon** for a land airport? Military? Helicopter?
* **Civilian**: white and green.
* **Military**: white, white, green.
* **Helicopter**: white, yellow, green.
100
What are **REILs**?
**R**unway **E**nd **I**dentifier **L**ights
## Footnote
A pair of synchronized flashing lights on each side of the runway threshold.
101
What is **PCL**?
**P**ilot **C**ontrolled **L**ighting
## Footnote
The pilot selects the proper radio frequency and clicks the microphone seven times within 5 seconds for max brightness. Five more for medium, and three for low. They stay on for 15 minutes.
102
At what **altitude and distance** from an uncontrolled field should you be able to pick up its **AWOS/ASOS** broadcast?
25 NM, under 10,000' MSL
103
Is **Class E** airspace considered "**controlled**"?
Yes
## Footnote
For example, ATC provides separation, and you can get flight following, even though the airports in Class E do not have control towers.
104
What is an **in-pavement stop bar**?
A row of in-pavement illuminated lights.
## Footnote
If they are red, DO NOT CROSS, even if ATC says to.
105
If you are flying with an altimeter setting of 29.00, and you enter a new area where the recommended altimeter setting is 28.50, but you don't adjust the altimeter, what kind of problems would you have?
The altimeter would read higher than the actual altitude.
## Footnote
*"High to Low, look out below"*
106
How does **temperature** affect the **altimeter**?
When the temperature drops, the altimeter reads higher than actual.
## Footnote
*Hot to cold, look out below.*
107
Who monitors **121.5**?
FSS and control towers (and you too).
108
On a runway, what's the **difference** between chevrons and arrows?
* **Arrows** indicate that you can taxi and takeoff in that area.
* **Chevrons** are for overrun only.
109
When **not designated**, where does **Class E** airspace start?
1200' AGL
110
When not designated otherwise, where does Class E airspace end? What about Class G?
* **Class E**: up to, but not including, 18,000' MSL.
* **Class G**: 14,500' MSL.
111
In an airport information box on a chart, what does the "**L**" mean?
Lighting in operation sunset to sunrise.
## Footnote
If there's an asterisk preceding the L, it means that lighting limitations exist (consult AFD for more info).
112
In a **NAVAID box** on a chart, what does an **asterisk** mean?
That the NAVAID operates less than continuous or on-request.
113
All **airspace** between **14,500' and 18,000'** that is not contained in other classes of airspace is which class?
Class E
114
# Describe this special use airspace:
Controlled Firing Area
Not depicted on charts.
## Footnote
Activities in this area are suspended immediately when it's indicated that an aircraft is entering the area.
115
# Describe this special use airspace:
National Security Area
Areas where greater security is desired. Pilots are requested to not fly through these areas.
116
# Describe this special use airspace:
Alert Area
A high volume of pilot training. Be alert in these areas.
117
# Describe this special use airspace:
Warning Area
Extends from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the US.
## Footnote
Maybe hazardous, and may be in international waters.
118
# Describe this special use airspace:
MOA
Military operations area; exercise extreme caution.
## Footnote
*Note: while operating under VFR you may enter an MOA, it may be extremely hazardous to you and the occupants of that MOA. Don't do it.*
119
# Describe this special use airspace:
Restricted
Unusual, often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery. Need permission from the controlling agency to enter.
## Footnote
*NOTE: "the controlling agency" is not likely to be ATC.*
120
# Describe this special use airspace:
Prohibited
Can't enter.
121
What is **Class II** **navigation**?
Any en-route flight operation that is not Class I navigation.
## Footnote
Any operation or portion of an en-route operation is Class II if it takes place outside the officially designated operational service volumes of ICAO standard ground-based NAVAIDs, such as VOR, VOR/DME, and NDB.
Class II navigation is dependent on the use of a Long-Range Navigation System (LRNS). The LRNS maybe satellite-based, self-contained or ground stations (LORAN-C)
122
What is **Class I** **navigation**?
Navigation by direct reference to ICAO standard NAVAIDs and are within the operational service Volume of those NAVAIDs.
123
What is the airspeed limit **below 10,000 feet**?
250 KIAS
124
What is the airspeed limit **below 10,000 feet in Class B airspace**?
250 KIAS
125
What is the airspeed limit **beneath Class B airspace**?
200 KIAS
## Footnote
also speed limit while in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace.
126
What is the airspeed limit in a **procedure turn**?
200 KIAS
127
What is the airspeed limit in **Class C or D** (below 2,500 feet AGL and w/in 4nm of the airport)?
200 KIAS
| (unless higher airspeed approved by ATC)
128
What is the airspeed limit in **Class E or G Traffic Pattern**?
200 KIAS
| (recommended)
129
Three ATC Speed **restrictions rules** are?
1. When issued a speed restriction, it continues while climbing or descending
2. Approach clearance cancels any speed restriction
3. PIC always can refuse a speed restriction if it would impact safety
130
# True or False:
"**Best Forward Speed**" gives you permission to exceed the airspace speed limit.
False
## Footnote
Still must meet below 10,000 limits (250 KIAS), unless below Class B and within 4 nm of Class C or Class D (200 KIAS).
It is assumed that you will decelerate to 250 KIAS before descending through 10,000
131
What are **holding pattern speeds limits** (3)?
1. 6,000 feet and below: 200 KIAS
2. 6,001 to 14,000 feet: 230 KIAS
3. 14,001 and above: 265 KIAS
132
When are you expected to **decelerate to enter a holding pattern**?
When three (3) minutes or less from the holding fix.
## Footnote
You are expected to cross the holding fix below the speed limit for your altitude.
133
What is the **correct hold timing**?
* Inbound leg
* At or below 14,000 feet: 1 minute
* Above 14,000 feet 1 ½ minute
134
What are the speeds for Aircraft Approach **Category A**?
0-90 Kts
## Footnote
1.3 x VSO at GW
135
What are the speeds for Aircraft Approach **Category B**?
91-120 knots
136
What are the speeds for Aircraft Approach **Category C**?
121-140 knots
137
What are the speeds for Aircraft Approach **Category D**?
141-165 knots
138
What are the speeds for Aircraft Approach **Category E**?
Above 165 knots
139
The Circling Approach Obstacle Clearance radii for Approach **Category A** is?
1.3 miles
140
The Circling Approach Obstacle Clearance radii for Approach **Category B** is?
1.5 miles
141
The Circling Approach Obstacle Clearance radii for Approach **Category C** is?
1.7 miles
142
The Circling Approach Obstacle Clearance radii for Approach **Category D** is?
2.3 miles
143
The Circling Approach Obstacle Clearance radii for Approach **Category E** is?
4.5 miles
144
When are you required to report a **cruise speed change**?
When your TAS changes by 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from what you filed.
145
Except for takeoff or landing, what are the **minimum altitude for 135 operations** for day and night?
* **Day:** VFR 500 feet AGL or 500 feet horizontally from any obstacle
* **Night:** VFR 1,000 feet or 2,000 feet in mountainous area above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 miles from the intended course
146
An **ATC Minimum Vectoring Altitude** (MVA) will provide you with what protections?
MVA: the lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by ATC.
MVA meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria:
1. 1,000 feet obstacle clearance over flat terrain
2. 2,000 feet obstacle clearance over mountainous terrain
* *Can be lowered to 1,500 in some eastern mountainous areas*
147
Where is **Class A** airspace?
All airspace from 18,000 feet up to, and including, FL600 (60,000 feet) within the 48 contiguous States and most of Alaska and within 12 NM of the coastline.
148
When directed to climb or descend, what **vertical rate** are you expected to maintain?
**_NOT_** "Pilot's Discretion"
"Optimum rate" until 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then
500 - 1,500 fpm until reaching assigned altitude.
149
What are your minimum **VFR Cloud Clearances** in **Class A** airspace?
**Trick question...**
All aircraft must be IFR in Class A airspace, so there is no VFR Cloud clearances or visibility requirements
150
What is the **US altimeter setting** in **Class A** airspace?
**29.92 inches Hg** is the standard setting above 18,000’ (FL180) in the US.
151
Where is **Class B** airspace?
Surface to an altitude as charted around busy airports (tailored airspace that covers all instrument approaches).
## Footnote
Altitudes vary, but upper limits are normally 10,000 feet MSL.
152
What is the **radio communication requirement** for **Class B** airspace?
You must receive specific clearance from ATC to enter Class B airspace.
You must hear the word "***Cleared***".
153
What **two avionics** are required for Class B airspace?
1. Transponder - Inside the Mode C veil
2. Operable VOR or TACAN if IFR
154
What are the **VFR cloud clearances** when operating in Class B airspace?
3 miles, clear of clouds, and 1,000 foot ceiling (or Special VFR)
155
What are **three (3)** Large (\>12,500 lbs) or Turbine Powered aircraft **requirements** when **operating in Class B** airspace?
1. If operating to or from a primary airport in Class B, must operate at or above the floor of Class B
2. Traffic Pattern altitude 1,500 feet
3. If the runway has an ILS, must fly at or above the Glide Slope between the Outer Marker and the Middle Marker
156
What is a **Mode C Veil**?
All aircraft operating within 30 nm of a Class B airport below 10,000 feet must have an operable transponder with Mode C.
157
What is the requirement for flying an approach to a **Class B airport's runway** that has a VASI?
Any airplane shall maintain at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for landing.
158
# True or False:
Class C Airspace must have an operating Control Tower.
True
159
# True or False:
Class C Airspace does not have Radar Approach Control.
False
## Footnote
Class C Airspace requires and operating control tower and Radar Approach Control.
160
What are **Class C** Airspace altitudes?
Surface to 4,000 AGL above an airport with an outer ring with a base as charted and a top of 4,000 AGL.
161
What are the VFR cloud clearances in **Class C airspace**?
* 3sm visibility
* 1,000 above
* 500 feet below
* 2,000 horizontally
## Footnote
*"Three 152s"*
162
What is the minimum ceiling in **Class C airspace** for VFR operations?
1,000 feet
| (or Special VFR)
163
What are the **normal geographic boundaries** of Class C airspace?
*Individually tailored, but usually consist of:*
* 5nm radius core: Surface to 4,000 feet AGL
* 10 nm radius shelf: 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet AGL
* 20 nm Outer Area: Up to the ceiling of Approach Controls airspace
164
What is the rule for **radio communication** with Class C Airspace?
Two-way communication must be established before entry.
"*_callsign_* standby" **is** establishing two-way communication -- you may enter the airspace.
"standby" (no callsign) **_is not_** establishing two-way communication -- you may not enter the airspace.
165
Can you fly an approach below the VASI in Class C airspace?
No
## Footnote
You must remain at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
166
What is the speed limit within Class C airspace?
**Below 2,500** feet and **within 4 nm** of the primary airport: **200 kts**
## Footnote
*Any speed deviation higher than 200kts must be assigned by ATC*
"... maintain best forward speed" **_is not_** an authorization to exceed the 200 kts speed limit
167
What is **Class D** Airspace?
Surface to 2,500 feet AGL surrounding an airport with an operating Control Tower, but (usually) no RADAR
## Footnote
*Trivia: An airport with a Control Tower and Approach RADAR may still be Class D if it does not have a high enough traffic count.*
168
What are the VFR cloud clearances in **Class D airspace**?
* 3sm visibility
* 1,000 above
* 500 feet below
* 2,000 horizontally
## Footnote
*"Three 152s"*
169
If **radio failure** occurs in **IFR conditions**, what route do you fly?
In order...
1. By the last route **Assigned**
2. If being **Vectored** by the direct route from the point of failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance
3. The route ATC advised you to **Expect**
4. In the absence of the above, the **Filed** route in the flight plan
170
What **equipment** and **information** is required to enter **class "B"** airspace?
Two way radio, Mode C transponder and a clearance.
171
If on **initial contact** with ATC in **Class "C"** airspace the controller tells you to **standby**, can you continue?
Only if he/she acknowledges you with your full call sign. If he/she does not you must remain clear of the Class "C".
172
If **radio failure** occurs in IFR conditions, what **altitude** do you fly?
The highest of:
* **M**EA
* **A**ssigned
* **E**xpected
173
What is the "**landing environment**" as it pertains to instrument approaches?
* The approach light system
* The threshold
* The threshold markings
* The threshold lights
* The runway end identifier lights
* The visual approach slope indicator
* The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
* The touchdown zone lights
* The runway or runway markings
* The runway lights
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral
flashcards
Decks in class (4)
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