1
Q
What are a few of the medications used for moderate to severe pain management?
Learner, please keep in mind that these flashcards are not all in-compassing lists and do not include all of the possible medications in that category. Use the answers given to think of other medications that would fit the prompt.
A
- acetaminophen; hydrocodone (Norco, Vicodin, Lortab)
- acetaminophen; oxycodone (Percocet, Endocet, Roxicet)
- buprenorphine (Subutex, Belbuca, Butrans)
- fentanyl (Duragesic, Sublimaze, Actiq)
- hydrocodone (Hysingla ER, Zohydro ER)
- hydromorphone (Dilaudid, Exalgo)
These medications (not all-inclusive) are opioid or opioid combination products primarily used for moderate to severe pain relief. They carry a risk of dependence and respiratory depression. Monitoring and dose adjustments are crucial, especially when used in combination with CNS depressants.
2
Q
Which NSAIDs are most commonly indicated for rheumatoid arthritis?
A
- celecoxib (Celebrex)
- diclofenac (Voltaren)
- ibuprofen (Motrin)
- indomethacin (Indocin)
- meloxicam (Mobic)
- nabumetone (Relafen)
NSAIDs like celecoxib, diclofenac, and ibuprofen are commonly used to manage inflammation and pain in rheumatoid arthritis. Celecoxib is a COX-2 selective NSAID, potentially reducing gastrointestinal side effects compared to non-selective NSAIDs. When using NSAIDs for rheumatoid arthritis, it’s important to consider the potential for gastrointestinal side effects and cardiovascular risks. Co-prescription of proton pump inhibitors may be recommended for gastroprotection.
3
Q
Which medications are used for opioid dependence treatment?
A
- buprenorphine (Subutex, Belbuca, Butrans)
- buprenorphine; naloxone (Suboxone, Zubsolv)
- methadone (Dolophine)
Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used to manage opioid dependence. The combination with naloxone is designed to deter misuse by injection, as naloxone induces withdrawal symptoms if the combination is injected. Methadone mimics endogenous opioids by binding to Mu opioid receptors preventing opiod cravings.
4
Q
What are a few muscle relaxants are used for spasticity and muscle spasms?
A
- baclofen (Lioresal)
- carisoprodol (Soma)
- cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril, Amrix)
Baclofen is primarily used for spasticity, while carisoprodol and cyclobenzaprine are used for short-term relief of muscle spasms. All have potential sedative effects and should be used with caution in combination with other CNS depressants.
5
Q
Which OTC medications are commonly used to treat minor pain or inflammation?
A
- acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)
Acetaminophen and NSAIDs like ibuprofen and diclofenac are often used for minor pain relief. They work by reducing inflammation and pain reception.
6
Q
What serotonin receptor agonist medications are indicated for migraine treatment?
A
- rizatriptan (Maxalt)
- sumatriptan (Imitrex)
- zolmitriptan (Zomig)
Both rizatriptan and sumatriptan are serotonin 5-HT1B,1D receptor agonists. They work by causing vasoconstriction of cranial blood vessels. Caution is advised in patients with cardiovascular risk factors.
7
Q
Which NSAIDs are indicated for mild to moderate osteoarthritis?
A
- meloxicam (Mobic)
- nabumetone (Relafen)
- piroxicam (Feldene)
NSAIDs like meloxicam and nabumetone are often used for osteoarthritis due to their anti-inflammatory properties. Long-term use requires monitoring for potential GI and cardiovascular side effects.
8
Q
Identify opioid analgesics used for severe pain management.
A
- morphine (MS Contin, Roxanol)
- oxycodone (OxyContin, Roxicodone)
- oxymorphone (Opana)
These opioid analgesics (not all-inclusive) are potent pain relievers with a high potential for dependence and misuse. As Schedule II controlled substances, they have a high potential for dependence and misuse. Careful prescribing and monitoring for respiratory depression are essential for safe use.
9
Q
What non control medications are used to treat muscle spasms?
A
- tizanidine (Zanaflex)
- cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
- methocarbamol (Robaxin)
- metaxalone (Skelaxin)
These are centrally acting muscle relaxants. Common side effects include sedation, dizziness, and hypotension. Caution is advised when used with other CNS depressants.
10
Q
Antiviral drug used for herpes simplex and varicella-zoster infections.
A
acyclovir (Zovirax)
Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used for HSV and VZV. It inhibits viral DNA polymerase, requiring activation within the virus, and is generally well tolerated. Adequate hydration is recommended to prevent renal complications.
11
Q
Which macrolide antibiotic is used for respiratory infections and has a role in treating Mycobacterium avium complex?
A
azithromycin (Zithromax)
Azithromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. It is used for respiratory infections and Mycobacterium avium complex, especially in AIDS patients. QT prolongation is a notable side effect.
12
Q
What are the antifungal drugs are first line for invasive candidiasis?
A
- caspofungin (Cancidas)
- micafungin (Mycamine)
Caspofungin and micafungin are echinocandin antifungals that inhibit the synthesis of fungal cell wall components. They are administered via IV infusion and used for systemic candidiasis, including strains resistant to azole antifungals.
13
Q
Which cephalosporins are commonly used for treating otitis media?
A
- cefdinir (Omnicef)
- cefuroxime (Ceftin; Zinacef)
- ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
Cephalosporins are often used for otitis media when there is a concern for amoxicillin-resistant H. influenzae or for patients with penicillin allergies without anaphylaxis. Always consider the spectrum of activity and resistance patterns in your area when choosing an antibiotic.
14
Q
Which third generation cephalosporins is used for bacterial meningitis?
A
ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
Third generation cephalosporins like ceftriaxone are preferred for meningitis due to their ability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier effectively. Ceftriaxone is widely used due to its convenient dosing schedule. Adjustments may be necessary for renal impairment.
15
Q
Which cephalosporin is effective against MRSA?
A
ceftaroline (Teflaro)
Ceftaroline is a fifth generation cephalosporin that binds to PBP2a, making it effective against MRSA. This makes it a valuable option for treating resistant Gram-positive infections, especially when MRSA is a concern.
16
Q
List a few cephalosporins used for urinary tract infections.
A
- cefazolin (Ancef)
- cefepime (Maxipime)
- cefuroxime (Ceftin; Zinacef)
- cephalexin (Keflex)
Cephalosporins are used for UTIs depending on the severity of infection and resistance patterns. Cephalexin is often used for uncomplicated cases, while cefepime may be reserved for more resistant organisms.
17
Q
Which fluoroquinolone is commonly used for bacterial diarrhea and travelers diarrhea?
A
ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Ciprofloxacin is effective for bacterial diarrhea caused by pathogens like Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella, and E. coli. It’s important to be aware of the risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture, particularly in certain populations.
18
Q
What are the common indications for fluoroquinolones?
A
- UTIs
- Prostatitis
- Respiratory infections
- Gastrointestinal infections
- Bone and joint infections
Fluoroquinolones offer broad-spectrum activity but are associated with serious side effects such as QT prolongation and tendon rupture. They should be used with caution, especially in patients with underlying conditions or those taking interacting medications.
19
Q
What is an NRTIs used in the management of HIV?
A
tenofovir (Viread)
20
Q
Which tetracycline antibiotics are used for treating acne vulgaris?
A
- doxycycline (Vibramycin)
- minocycline (Minocin)
21
Q
Which macrolide antibiotics are indicated for respiratory infections?
A
- clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- erythromycin (Ery-Tab)
22
Q
What is an antifungal medication used for dermatophyte infections?
A
clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
23
Q
Which drugs are commonly used for the treatment of MRSA infections?
A
- clindamycin (Cleocin)
- daptomycin (Cubicin)
- linezolid (Zyvox)
- vancomycin (Vancocin)
24
Q
Which antifungal medications are used for the treatment of candidiasis?
A
- fluconazole (Diflucan)
- micafungin (Mycamine)
Fluconazole is often used for mucocutaneous candidiasis, while micafungin is used for both prophylaxis and treatment of invasive candidiasis. Consider the spectrum of activity and route of administration when choosing an antifungal.
25
Which medications are commonly used to treat fungal infections?
* fluconazole (Diflucan)
* ketoconazole (Nizoral)
* micafungin (Mycamine)
* griseofulvin (Gris-PEG)
## Footnote
Each antifungal has a specific spectrum of activity and potential side effects. Fluconazole and ketoconazole are azoles, micafungin is an echinocandin, and griseofulvin is used primarily for dermatophyte infections.
26
Which medication is used for the prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis in patients with AIDS?
fluconazole (Diflucan)
## Footnote
Fluconazole is effective for both treatment and prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis due to its good penetration into the central nervous system.
27
Name the fluoroquinolone that is used for the treatment of anthrax.
* ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
* levofloxacin (Levaquin)
## Footnote
Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is used for the treatment of anthrax, especially in cases of inhalational anthrax. It works by inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis.
28
What are the pharmacologic treatments for onchocerciasis (river blindness)?
ivermectin (Stromectol)
## Footnote
Ivermectin is the drug of choice for onchocerciasis. It works by increasing chloride permeability in muscle cells of helminths, leading to paralysis.
29
Which aminoglycoside is used for the treatment of serious Gram-negative bacterial infections?
amikacin (Amikin)
## Footnote
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, is often used in combination with other antibiotics for serious Gram-negative infections. It has significant nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity risks.
30
What medication is indicated for the treatment of giardiasis?
metronidazole (Flagyl)
## Footnote
Metronidazole is effective for treating giardiasis and works by disrupting DNA synthesis in protozoa. It can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol consumption.
31
Which antibiotics are commonly used to treat lower urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
* nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)
* sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim)
32
Which medications are indicated for the treatment of influenza?
oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
## Footnote
Oseltamivir is a neuraminidase inhibitor that is effective in reducing the duration and severity of influenza symptoms. It is most beneficial when started within 48 hours of symptom onset.
**Learner, please keep in mind that these flashcards are not all in-compassing lists and do not include all of the possible medications in that category. Use the answers given to think of other medications that would fit the prompt.**
**Note:** Many brand names listed here are no longer available on the market due to the ending of patents and release of generic equivalents. They have been added for reference as they are often still referred to as the brand name in practice.
33
What are the main medications used for COVID-19 treatment?
* nirmatrelvir–ritonavir (Paxlovid)
* remdesivir (Veklury)
## Footnote
Nirmatrelvir; ritonavir is an oral antiviral combination that helps prevent viral replication, while remdesivir is an intravenous nucleotide analog prodrug that inhibits viral RNA synthesis.
34
Which penicillin-class antibiotics are commonly used for skin and soft tissue infections?
* nafcillin (Unipen)
* piperacillin–tazobactam (Zosyn)
* amoxicillin–clavulanate (Augmentin)
## Footnote
Nafcillin is used primarily for infections caused by penicillinase-producing staphylococci, while piperacillin-tazobactam provides a broader spectrum of activity, including coverage for some gram-negative bacteria.
35
Which antifungal medication is commonly used for superficial mycoses of the mucous membranes?
nystatin (Mycostatin; Nilstat)
## Footnote
Nystatin alters fungal cell wall permeability, leading to cell death. It is often used topically or orally for Candida infections, with dosing frequency depending on the infection site.
36
What is a common medication used for diarrhea caused by Giardia lamblia?
metronidazole (Flagyl)
37
Which medication is used as a topical antibiotics for skin infections?
mupirocin (Bactroban)
## Footnote
Mupirocin is effective against gram-positive cocci, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), and is commonly used for impetigo and nasal colonization by MRSA.
38
Which antiviral drugs are commonly used for the treatment and prophylaxis of HSV and VZV?
* valacyclovir (Valtrex)
* acyclovir (Zovirax)
## Footnote
Valacyclovir has improved bioavailability compared to acyclovir, allowing for more convenient dosing schedules. Both drugs require renal dose adjustments, and adequate hydration is essential during therapy to reduce the risk of renal effects.
39
What are the common medications for the treatment of onychomycosis?
* terbinafine (Lamisil)
* itraconazole (Sporanox)
## Footnote
Terbinafine is often preferred for onychomycosis due to its shorter treatment duration and higher efficacy. Both medications require monitoring of liver function during long-term use.
40
Which beta-lactam antibiotics are used to treat community-acquired pneumonia?
* amoxicillin (Amoxil)
* cefuroxime (Ceftin)
* ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
## Footnote
Amoxicillin is commonly used in mild cases, while cefuroxime and ceftriaxone are typically reserved for more severe cases or hospitalized patients. Ceftriaxone is particularly used for its broad-spectrum activity and once-daily dosing.
41
Which medications are used in combination as first-line treatment for HIV?
* tenofovir (Viread)
* emtricitabine (Emtriva)
## Footnote
Tenofovir and emtricitabine are often used together in combination with other antiretrovirals as part of a daily regimen for HIV treatment. Monitoring kidney function and bone density is important with tenofovir use.
42
What antifungal agent is used for invasive aspergillosis?
voriconazole (Vfend)
## Footnote
Voriconazole is generally preferred due to its effectiveness and oral formulation, but it requires monitoring for visual disturbances and liver function.
43
Which medications are used to treat hypertension and belong to the class of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers?
* amlodipine (Norvasc)
* nifedipine (Procardia; Adalat CC)
## Footnote
Amlodipine is also used for angina and coronary artery disease.
44
Which Endothelin Receptor Antagonist (ERA) is commonly used for pulmonary arterial hypertension?
bosentan (Tracleer)
## Footnote
Bosentan is an endothelin-1 antagonist that promotes vasodilation. Monitor liver function regularly due to potential for hepatotoxicity. It is contraindicated in pregnancy.
45
Which beta-blockers are commonly used to treat hypertension?
* atenolol (Tenormin)
* metoprolol (Lopressor)
* carvedilol (Coreg)
## Footnote
Atenolol and metoprolol are beta-1 selective blockers primarily indicated for hypertension, angina, and post-myocardial infarction management. Carvedilol is non-selective and also blocks alpha-1 receptors, offering additional vasodilation, and is used in heart failure management.
46
What are the primary medications used in the management of hypercholesterolemia?
* atorvastatin (Lipitor)
* alirocumab (Praluent)
47
What medications are indicated for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
* lisinopril (Prinivil; Zestril)
* spironolactone (Aldactone)
* sacubitril–valsartan (Entresto)
48
Which anticoagulants are used for the prevention of venous thromboembolism?
* dabigatran (Pradaxa)
* dalteparin (Fragmin)
* enoxaparin (Lovenox)
## Footnote
Dabigatran is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor, while dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins. Enoxaparin and dalteparin are often used in prophylaxis due to their predictable pharmacokinetics and longer half-lives compared to unfractionated heparin.
49
Which ACE inhibitors are commonly used for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
* enalapril (Vasotec)
* lisinopril (Prinivil)
## Footnote
ACE inhibitors help decrease mortality and morbidity in heart failure.
50
What are the main pharmacologic options for treating rate control in atrial fibrillation?
* Diltiazem (Cardizem)
* metoprolol (Lopressor)
51
Which medications are commonly used to manage angina pectoris?
* atenolol (Tenormin)
* diltiazem (Cardizem)
| Diltizem is used when beta blockers are contraindicated.
52
What medication is used for the prevention of thrombosis in patients with artificial heart valves?
* warfarin (Coumadin)
53
Which medications are indicated for hypertriglyceridemia?
* fenofibrate (Tricor)
* gemfibrozil (Lopid)
54
What are the common medications prescribed for edema or volume overload conditions?
* furosemide (Lasix)
* hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
55
Which anticoagulants from the list are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic disorders?
* apixaban (Eliquis)
* dibigatran (Pradaxa)
* fondaparinux (Arixtra)
* dalteparin (Fragmin)
* warfarin (Coumandin)
56
Which cholesterol-lowering medication works by inhibiting intestinal absorption of cholesterol?
* ezetimibe (Zetia)
57
Which thiazide diuretics are commonly used to treat hypertension and edema?
* hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
* metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
* chlorthalidone (Thalitone)
## Footnote
Thiazide diuretics are effective in managing hypertension due to their ability to decrease peripheral vascular resistance over time. They also help manage edema by increasing sodium and water excretion. Monitoring for electrolyte imbalances is crucial.
58
What are the angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) indicated for hypertension?
* irbesartan (Avapro)
* losartan (Cozaar)
* valsartan (Diovan)
* olmesartan (Benicar)
## Footnote
ARBs are often used in patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to cough. They are effective in reducing blood pressure by blocking the effects of angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion.
59
Which nitrates are used for the prevention of angina pectoris?
* isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
* isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur)
## Footnote
Nitrates are vasodilators that reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing preload. Tolerance can develop, so a nitrate-free interval is recommended. Concurrent use with PDE-5 inhibitors is contraindicated due to the risk of severe hypotension.
60
What are the ACE inhibitors listed that are used for hypertension and heart failure management?
* lisinopril (Prinivil; Zestril)
* enalapril (Vasotec)
* ramipril (Altace)
## Footnote
ACE inhibitors are beneficial in heart failure due to their ability to decrease afterload and preload, improving cardiac output. A common side effect is a persistent dry cough, and they should be monitored for hyperkalemia and renal function.
61
Which beta-blocker is indicated for hypertension and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
metoprolol (Tenormin)
## Footnote
Metoprolol is a beta-1 selective blocker, making it preferable in patients with respiratory concerns. Labetalol, a non-selective beta-blocker with alpha-blocking activity, is often used in hypertensive emergencies. Beta-blockers can mask hypoglycemia symptoms.
62
Identify a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors used for hyperlipidemia and cardiovascular event prevention.
lovastatin (Mevacor)
## Footnote
Statins are the first-line treatment for lowering LDL cholesterol and preventing cardiovascular events. They are most effective when taken at night. Monitor for muscle-related side effects and liver enzyme elevations.
63
Which medications is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonists used for hypertension in pregnancy?
methyldopa (Aldomet)
## Footnote
Methyldopa is often used in the management of hypertension in pregnancy. It works centrally to reduce sympathetic outflow, thereby lowering blood pressure. Monitor for potential side effects like hemolytic anemia and liver enzyme elevation.
64
What medications are typically prescribed for hypertriglyceridemia?
* niacin (Niaspan)
* omega-3-ethyl esters (Lovaza)
## Footnote
Niacin can cause vasodilation and flushing, while omega-3-ethyl esters may have a fishy aftertaste and increase bleeding risk at higher doses.
65
What are a couple ACE inhibitors used for hypertension?
* lisinopril (Prinivil)
* enalapril (Vasotec)
## Footnote
ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough and are contraindicated in patients with a history of angioedema related to previous ACE inhibitor use. They should not be used with aliskiren in patients with diabetes.
66
Which medications are indicated for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
* quinapril (Accupril)
* ramipril (Altace)
## Footnote
Both medications are ACE inhibitors that help by reducing afterload and preload, and they counteract cardiac remodeling.
67
Which HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are commonly used for reducing the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke?
* rosuvastatin (Crestor)
* simvastatin (Zocor)
* atorvastatin (Lipitor)
## Footnote
These statins are used for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular events, including reducing the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke. They work by inhibiting the HMG-CoA reductase enzyme, which is crucial in the cholesterol biosynthesis pathway, ultimately reducing LDL cholesterol levels. Be cautious in patients with active liver disease and monitor for potential muscle-related side effects.
68
Which potassium-sparing diuretic is used for heart failure and hypertension management?
spironolactone (Aldactone)
## Footnote
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that competitively inhibits mineralocorticoid receptors, reducing sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium retention. It is used in heart failure and hypertension management. Monitor potassium levels closely to avoid hyperkalemia, especially when used with other potassium-sparing agents or in renal impairment.
69
Which angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) is used for hypertension and has additional benefits for heart failure management?
valsartan (Diovan)
## Footnote
Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that decreases blood pressure and is used in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction.
70
Which SGLT2 inhibitors are commonly used for the treatment of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
* dapagliflozin (Farxiga)
* empagliflozin (Jardiance)
## Footnote
SGLT2 inhibitors work by increasing urinary glucose excretion. They are associated with benefits such as weight loss and decreased blood pressure but may increase the risk of urinary tract infections and genital yeast infections.
71
What are GLP-1 agonists for managing Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
* dulaglutide (Trulicity)
* exenatide (Byetta, Bydureon)
## Footnote
GLP-1 agonists help lower blood sugar levels by enhancing insulin secretion and delaying gastric emptying. They are also associated with weight loss. Caution is advised in patients with a history of medullary thyroid carcinoma or pancreatic issues.
72
Which medications are used for prophylaxis and treatment of gout?
* allopurinol (Zyloprim)
* colchicine (Colcrys)
## Footnote
Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, reducing uric acid production. Colchicine is used to reduce inflammation during acute gout attacks. Patients should be monitored for hypersensitivity reactions and liver function.
73
What sulfonylureas are indicated for the management of Type 2 Diabetes?
* glimepiride (Amaryl)
* glipizide (Glucotrol)
* glyburide (Micronase, Diabeta)
## Footnote
Sulfonylureas enhance insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. They may cause weight gain and hypoglycemia, especially in the elderly or those with renal impairment. Avoid use in Type 1 Diabetes or diabetic ketoacidosis.
74
Which Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agents (ESAs) are used for anemia management?
* darbepoetin (Aranesp)
* epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
## Footnote
ESAs stimulate red blood cell production and are used in anemia due to CKD or chemotherapy. Monitor hemoglobin levels to avoid exceeding target levels, as higher levels are linked to increased cardiovascular risks.
75
Which drugs are utilized to slow the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) even in non-diabetic patients?
* dapagliflozin (Farxiga)
* empagliflozin (Jardiance)
## Footnote
While primarily used for diabetes, certain SGLT2 inhibitors like dapagliflozin and empagliflozin have indications for CKD, offering cardiovascular benefits. They should not be used in patients with a GFR < 50 mL/min.
76
Which rapid-acting insulins are commonly used for managing diabetes mellitus type 1 and type 2?
* insulin aspart (NovoLog)
* insulin glulisine (Apidra)
* insulin lispro (Humalog)
## Footnote
Rapid-acting insulins are typically administered before meals to mimic the body's natural insulin response to food intake. They have a quick onset of action (10-20 minutes) and a relatively short duration (2-5 hours), making them suitable for controlling postprandial glucose levels.
77
What long-acting insulins are available for basal control in diabetes management?
* insulin degludec (Tresiba)
* insulin detemir (Levemir)
* insulin glargine (Lantus, Basaglar, Toujeo)
## Footnote
Long-acting insulins provide a steady release of insulin to help maintain basal glucose levels. They can be administered once daily and are often used in combination with rapid-acting insulins to achieve comprehensive glycemic control.
78
Which medications are classified as DPP-4 inhibitors for the treatment of type 2 diabetes?
* linagliptin (Tradjenta)
* saxagliptin (Onglyza)
* sitagliptin (Januvia)
## Footnote
DPP-4 inhibitors work by increasing incretin levels, which inhibit glucagon release, increase insulin secretion, and decrease gastric emptying. These medications are generally well-tolerated and can be used in combination with other oral antidiabetic drugs.
79
What are the GLP-1 agonists used for type 2 diabetes management?
* liraglutide (Victoza, Saxenda)
* semaglutide (Ozempic, Wegovy)
## Footnote
GLP-1 agonists enhance glucose-dependent insulin secretion and have additional benefits such as weight loss and improved cardiovascular outcomes. Caution is advised in patients with pancreatitis, and these drugs should be avoided in severe renal impairment.
80
What is the main indication for levothyroxine?
Hypothyroidism
## Footnote
Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone (T4) used to replace deficient endogenous thyroid hormone. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests to adjust dosage appropriately and minimize risk of overtreatment, which can lead to symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
81
Which antimalarial drug is also used as a DMARD for rheumatoid arthritis and lupus?
hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)
## Footnote
Hydroxychloroquine is believed to work by modulating the immune system and has been shown to reduce inflammation and prevent disease flares in autoimmune conditions. Regular eye exams are recommended due to the risk of retinopathy with long-term use.
82
Which medication is a thiazolidinedione used for type 2 diabetes?
pioglitazone (Actos)
## Footnote
Pioglitazone improves insulin sensitivity and reduces insulin resistance. It is important to monitor liver function and watch for signs of heart failure, as these are potential adverse effects of thiazolidinediones.
83
What are common side effects of metformin?
* Gastrointestinal disturbances: diarrhea, nausea
* Lactic acidosis (rare)
* Weight loss
## Footnote
Metformin is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes and works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity. Patients should be advised to take it with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
84
Which synthetic thyroid hormone is used for hypothyroidism and myxedema coma?
levothyroxine (Euthyrox, Levoxyl, Synthroid, Tirosint)
85
Identify the meglitinide used for type 2 diabetes management.
| **Learner, please keep in mind that these flashcards are not all in-compassing lists and do not include all of the possible medications in that category. Use the answers given to think of other medications that would fit the prompt.**
**Note:** Many brand names listed here are no longer available on the market due to the ending of patents and release of generic equivalents. They have been added for reference as they are often still referred to as the brand name in practice.
repaglinide (Prandin)
## Footnote
Repaglinide stimulates insulin release from the pancreas and is taken before meals to control postprandial glucose levels. It has a rapid onset and short duration of action, requiring multiple daily doses.
86
Which bisphosphonates are indicated for the treatment of osteoporosis?
* alendronate (Fosamax)
* ibandronate (Boniva)
* risedronate (Actonel)
* zoledronic acid (Reclast)
## Footnote
Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting osteoclast activity, which reduces bone resorption and increases bone mineral density. Patients should be advised to take these medications on an empty stomach with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation.
87
What medications are used to manage benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
* alfuzosin (Uroxatral)
* terazosin (Hytrin)
* doxazosin (Cardura)
* dutasteride (Avodart)
## Footnote
Alfuzosin, terazosin, and doxazosin are alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockers that relax smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck. Dutasteride is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor that reduces the size of the prostate. Both medications improve urinary symptoms, but dutasteride may take longer to show effects.
88
Which aromatase inhibitor is commonly used for hormone receptor-positive breast cancer?
anastrozole (Arimidex)
## Footnote
Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces estrogen levels, which are essential for the growth of hormone receptor-positive breast cancer cells. It is often used in postmenopausal women.
89
Which medications are indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis, especially in postmenopausal women?
* alendronate (Fosamax)
* ibandronate (Boniva)
* risedronate (Actonel)
* raloxifene (Evista)
## Footnote
In addition to bisphosphonates, raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), is also used for osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It acts as an estrogen agonist on bone, reducing bone resorption and increasing bone mineral density.
90
What are the primary indications for corticosteroids like dexamethasone?
Anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressant agent, and allergic reaction treatment
## Footnote
Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response by decreasing capillary permeability and inhibiting phospholipase A2. It is used to treat conditions like allergic reactions, asthma, and certain autoimmune diseases.
91
What drugs are indicated for weight management?
* semaglutide (Wegovy)
* liraglutide (Saxenda)
## Footnote
Wegovy is used for weight management and works by mimicking the hormone GLP-1, which is involved in appetite regulation, slowing gastric emptying, and increasing satiety. It is important to monitor for potential gastrointestinal side effects and hypoglycemia, especially in patients with diabetes.
92
Which medications are commonly used for contraception in women?
* ethinyl estradiol; norethindrone (Loestrin)
* levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)
* medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera)
* norethindrone (Aygestin)
* progesterone (Prometrium)
## Footnote
These medications utilize different mechanisms, such as hormonal regulation and physical barriers, to prevent pregnancy. Some are also used for additional indications like hormonal therapy or the management of uterine bleeding.
93
What are some commonly used medications for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
* finasteride (Proscar)
* tadalafil (Adcirca; Cialis)
* tamsulosin (Flomax)
## Footnote
Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, whereas tadalafil is a PDE5 inhibitor, and tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blocker. They have different mechanisms of action, with finasteride reducing prostate size and tamsulosin and tadalafil improving urinary symptoms.
94
Which phosphodiesterase type-5 inhibitors are indicated for erectile dysfunction?
* sildenafil (Viagra)
* tadalafil (Adcirca)
## Footnote
Both sildenafil and tadalafil enhance the effects of nitric oxide by inhibiting PDE5, resulting in increased blood flow to the penis. They also have uses in pulmonary arterial hypertension and are known to interact significantly with nitrates, leading to severe hypotension.
95
What medications are used to manage amenorrhea?
* medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
* norethindrone (Aygestin)
## Footnote
These synthetic progestins mimic natural progesterone effects to regulate menstrual cycles. They are also used for contraception and in hormone replacement therapy. Monitoring and patient education regarding potential side effects and administration are crucial.
96
List the PDE-5 inhibitors are used for the management of pulmonary arterial hypertension.
* sildenafil (Viagra)
* tadalafil (Adcirca)
## Footnote
Both medications are PDE5 inhibitors and work by relaxing pulmonary vasculature, thereby decreasing pulmonary arterial pressure. It is essential to consider potential interactions with nitrates and guanylate cyclase stimulators.
97
Which corticosteroids are indicated for inflammatory conditions?
* prednisolone (Orapred)
* prednisone (Deltasone)
## Footnote
These corticosteroids are used for a wide range of inflammatory and autoimmune conditions. They suppress the immune response and inflammation but require careful monitoring for side effects, including osteoporosis and adrenal suppression.
98
Identify progestin and progesterone drugs used for hormone replacement therapy.
* medroxyprogesterone (Provera)
* norethindrone (Aygestin)
* progesterone (Prometrium)
## Footnote
These progestin and progesterone compounds help manage symptoms of menopause and prevent endometrial hyperplasia in postmenopausal women receiving estrogen therapy. They have varying forms of administration, including oral and injectable.
99
Which medications are commonly used for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
* cimetidine (Tagamet)
* dexlansoprazole (Dexilant)
* esomeprazole (Nexium)
* famotidine (Pepcid)
* lansoprazole (Prevacid)
## Footnote
Both proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and H₂ receptor antagonists are used to treat GERD. PPIs like esomeprazole and lansoprazole irreversibly inhibit the H⁺/K⁺-ATPase in gastric parietal cells, while H₂ antagonists like famotidine and cimetidine inhibit histamine action on H₂ receptors, reducing acid secretion.
100
Which medications are used for overactive bladder (OAB)?
* darifenacin (Enablex)
* tolterodine (Detrol)
## Footnote
Both darifenacin and tolterodine are antimuscarinic agents that work by inhibiting muscarinic receptors in the bladder, reducing bladder muscle contractions. They are often associated with anticholinergic side effects like dry mouth and constipation.
101
Which laxatives are indicated for chronic constipation?
* bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
* docusate (Colace)
* lactulose (Enulose)
* lubiprostone (Amitiza)
## Footnote
Different types of laxatives work by various mechanisms: stimulant laxatives like bisacodyl increase peristalsis, surfactant laxatives like docusate soften stool, osmotic laxatives like lactulose draw water into the bowel, and chloride channel activators like lubiprostone increase intestinal fluid and motility.
102
Which medication is available as an ODT and used to treat erectile dysfunction?
* vardenafil (Staxyn)
## Footnote
Vardenafil is a phosphodiesterase type-5 inhibitor that increases blood flow to the penis by preventing the breakdown of cGMP, which is necessary for vasodilation.
103
What are the primary anticholinergics used for gastrointestinal disorders?
* dicyclomine (Bentyl)
* hyoscyamine (Levsin)
## Footnote
Both dicyclomine and hyoscyamine are used to relieve smooth muscle spasms in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. They work by blocking the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors.
104
Which proton pump inhibitors are indicated for the treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?
* omeprazole (Prilosec)
* pantoprazole (Protonix)
## Footnote
Both omeprazole and pantoprazole work by irreversibly binding to the H⁺/K⁺-ATPase enzyme in the stomach lining. They are metabolized primarily by CYP2C19 and CYP3A4. Use caution in patients with hepatic impairment or those taking medications metabolized by these enzymes.
105
What medications are commonly used to treat chronic constipation?
* lubiprostone (Amitiza)
* polyethylene glycol (Miralax)
* psyllium (Metamucil)
## Footnote
Lubiprostone activates chloride channels to increase fluid secretion, polyethylene glycol acts as an osmotic laxative, and psyllium is a bulk-forming laxative. Educate patients on the expected onset of action and the importance of maintaining hydration.
106
What are the common medications used for managing nausea and vomiting?
* metoclopramide (Reglan)
* ondansetron (Zofran)
* prochlorperazine (Compazine)
## Footnote
Metoclopramide acts on D2 and 5-HT receptors, ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, and prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist with antiemetic properties. Monitor for extrapyramidal symptoms with metoclopramide and prochlorperazine.
107
Which topical corticosteroids are indicated for psoriasis?
* clobetasol (Temovate)
* fluocinonide (Lidex)
* hydrocortisone (Solu Cortef, Cortizone)
* triamcinolone (Kenalog)
## Footnote
Topical corticosteroids reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response. They are intended for short-term use to minimize the risk of side effects such as skin atrophy and telangiectasia.
108
What transdermal medication is used for motion sickness?
scopolamine (Transderm Scop)
## Footnote
Scopolamine is an anticholinergic that blocks acetylcholine in the vestibular apparatus. It is available in transdermal patch form and should be used with caution in combination with other CNS depressants or anticholinergics.
109
Which prostaglandin analogues are commonly used to treat open-angle glaucoma?
* latanoprost (Xalatan)
* travoprost (Lumigan)
## Footnote
Latanoprost and travoprost are prostaglandin analogs that increase aqueous humor outflow through the uveoscleral pathway.
110
What are the primary medications used in the management of Parkinson's disease?
* carbidopa; levodopa (Sinemet)
* amantadine (Symmetrel)
* benztropine (Cogentin)
111
Which two similar atypical antipsychotics are both indicated for schizophrenia?
* aripiprazole (Abilify)
* brexpiprazole (Rexulti)
## Footnote
Both aripiprazole and brexpiprazole are partial agonists at dopamine D2 receptors. Monitor for increased suicide risk and increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis.
112
What are some non SSRI medications used for the treatment of anxiety disorders?
* alprazolam (Xanax)
* buspirone (Buspar)
## Footnote
Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA, leading to CNS depression, while buspirone is a serotonin 5-HT1A receptor agonist with anxiolytic properties but without sedative effects.
113
What is a non-stimulant medication indicated for the treatment of ADHD?
atomoxetine (Strattera)
114
Name three medications with three different mechanism of actions commonly used for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD).
* citalopram (Celexa)
* desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)
* duloxetine (Cymbalta)
## Footnote
Citalopram is an SSRI, desvenlafaxine is an SNRIs, and doxepin is a tricyclic antidepressant. Each has different side effect profiles and potential interactions, which can guide choice in specific patient populations.
115
What benzodiazepines are utilized for seizure disorders or panic disorder?
* clobazam (Onfi)
* clonazepam (Klonopin)
* diazepam (Valium)
## Footnote
These medications enhance GABAergic activity and are classified as Schedule IV due to their potential for dependence. Clonazepam and diazepam are versatile in treating both seizures and anxiety-related disorders.
116
List a first line treatment anticonvulsant used for focal (partial) seizures.
carbamazepine (Tegretol)
## Footnote
Carbamazepine primarily affects sodium channels to help control seizures.
117
What anticonvulsant medication is typically prescribed for neuropathic pain?
carbamazepine (Tegretol)
## Footnote
Carbamazepine is used for trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy.
118
Identify an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drug used for the management of Alzheimer's disease.
donepezil (Aricept)
## Footnote
Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that improves cholinergic function by increasing the concentration of acetylcholine. It has potential cardiac and gastrointestinal side effects.
119
Which medications are indicated for both anxiety and depression, but are not first line?
* doxepin (Silenor)
* duloxetine (Cymbalta)
## Footnote
Doxepin is a TCA, while duloxetine is an SNRI. Both can treat anxiety and depression, but they have distinct mechanisms and side effect profiles that influence their use in specific patient populations.
120
What medication is considered the gold standard in managing Parkinson's disease symptoms?
carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet)
## Footnote
Carbidopa/levodopa is the cornerstone treatment for Parkinson's disease, working by supplementing dopamine levels in the brain. It requires careful management of dosing and timing to minimize side effects and optimize therapeutic effects.
121
What are common medications prescribed for ADHD in children?
dexmethylphenidate (Focalin)
## Footnote
Dexmethylphenidate is a CNS stimulant that increases dopamine and norepinephrine levels. It is a Schedule II drug with potential for abuse and requires monitoring for growth and behavioral changes in pediatric patients.
122
What are the primary medications used to treat generalized anxiety disorder?
* duloxetine (Cymbalta)
* escitalopram (Lexapro)
## Footnote
Both duloxetine and escitalopram are effective for generalized anxiety disorder. Duloxetine also addresses chronic pain, while escitalopram is known for its relatively favorable side effect profile among SSRIs. Consideration of QT prolongation and hepatic or renal function is important when prescribing these medications.
123
Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used for major depressive disorder?
* escitalopram (Lexapro)
* fluoxetine (Prozac)
## Footnote
SSRIs like escitalopram and fluoxetine are often first-line treatments for major depressive disorder. Fluoxetine has a longer half-life and is less likely to cause weight gain compared to other SSRIs. Both medications have a risk of QT prolongation and should be used cautiously with other QT-prolonging drugs.
124
List the medications that are indicated for both focal (partial) seizures and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
* lamotrigine (Lamictal)
* levetiracetam (Keppra)
## Footnote
These anticonvulsants are utilized for both focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Lamotrigine requires careful titration to prevent skin reactions, while levetiracetam has the benefit of minimal drug interactions.
125
What medications are used in the management of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
* fluvoxamine (Luvox)
* fluoxetine (Prozac)
## Footnote
Fluvoxamine is specifically approved for OCD and may require dosage adjustments in hepatic impairment. Fluoxetine is a versatile SSRI that can also be used for OCD, with the added benefit of a long half-life, reducing the risk of withdrawal symptoms if a dose is missed.
126
Identify the common pharmacologic treatments for bipolar disorder.
* lamotrigine (Lamictal)
* lithium carbonate (Lithobid)
## Footnote
Lithium is a classic mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder, with narrow therapeutic range requiring regular monitoring of serum levels. Lamotrigine is effective in bipolar depression and requires slow titration to minimize the risk of serious skin rashes.
127
Which hypnotic medication, other than zolpidem, is typically prescribed for insomnia, albeit for short-term use?
eszopiclone (Lunesta)
## Footnote
Eszopiclone is a hypnotic that is usually prescribed for short-term management of insomnia. It acts on GABA receptors and carries a risk of dependence and complex sleep behaviors, necessitating careful monitoring and patient education.
128
What are the main medications used to treat panic disorder?
* fluoxetine (Prozac)
* sertraline (Zoloft)
## Footnote
Fluoxetine and sertraline are SSRIs effective in treating panic disorder. It is important to monitor for anxiety and insomnia during the initial treatment phase of these medications.
129
Which amphetamine-based medication is used to manage ADHD in both children and adults?
lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse)
## Footnote
Lisdexamfetamine is a CNS stimulant indicated for ADHD and binge eating disorder. It is a prodrug of dextroamphetamine, offering a consistent release profile and potentially reduced risk of abuse. Monitoring for cardiovascular side effects and growth in children is essential.
130
Which atypical antipsychotics are used for treating schizophrenia?
* lurasidone (Latuda)
* olanzapine (Zyprexa)
## Footnote
Lurasidone and olanzapine are both atypical antipsychotics, but olanzapine is also indicated for bipolar disorder and major depressive disorder. Lurasidone requires administration with food to ensure adequate absorption.
131
Name a benzodiazepine commonly used for the treatment of anxiety that can also be used for panic disorder.
lorazepam (Ativan)
## Footnote
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine with anxiolytic and sedative properties. Long-term use can lead to dependency, and abrupt discontinuation should be avoided due to potential withdrawal symptoms such as seizures.
132
What medication is used in the management of ADHD that is available in short-acting, intermediate, and extended-release forms?
methylphenidate (Ritalin)
## Footnote
Methylphenidate is a CNS stimulant used for ADHD and narcolepsy. It should be administered in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, and patients should be monitored for psychiatric symptoms and weight loss.
133
What CNS stimulant is approved for narcolepsy treatment with low risk of dependency?
modafinil (Provigil)
## Footnote
Modafinil is used to treat narcolepsy, but is also indicated for shift work sleep disorder and obstructive sleep apnea-related excessive daytime sleepiness.
134
Which SSRI, besides escitalopram, is used for treating depression and also approved for anxiety?
paroxetine (Paxil)
## Footnote
Paroxetine is an SSRI used for a wide range of conditions including depression, anxiety, OCD, and PTSD. It has the highest weight gain potential among SSRIs and may cause sexual dysfunction. Paroxetine should be avoided in pregnancy unless essential.
135
Identify the tricyclic antidepressant from the list used for depression.
nortriptyline (Pamelor)
## Footnote
Nortriptyline is a secondary amine TCA used for depression. It has anticholinergic effects and should be used cautiously in the elderly. Overdose risk is significant, so the lowest effective dose should be prescribed.
136
What narrow-spectrum AED agent is used for managing focal or generalized onset seizures?
oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)
## Footnote
Oxcarbazepine is a prodrug of carbamazepine and should be monitored for hyponatremia.
137
Which medication is prescribed for the management of migraine, and has a longer half life than other agents for this indication?
naratriptan (Amerge)
## Footnote
Naratriptan is a serotonin 5-HT1B,1D receptor agonist used for acute migraine attacks. It should not be used within 24 hours of other triptans or ergotamine derivatives.
138
Which anticonvulsants from the list are commonly used to treat tonic-clonic, focal seizures?
* phenobarbital (Luminal)
* phenytoin (Dilantin)
## Footnote
Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that potentiates GABA and is not recommended for breastfeeding. Phenytoin requires cardiac monitoring during IV infusion due to increased cardiovascular risk.
139
What are the main dopamine agonists used to treat Parkinson's disease?
* pramipexole (Mirapex)
* ropinirole (Requip)
140
What anticonvulsant medication is used for neuropathic pain and also indicated for fibromyalgia?
* pregabalin (Lyrica)
## Footnote
Pregabalin is indicated for neuropathic pain associated with diabetes, postherpetic neuralgia, fibromyalgia, and neuropathic pain after spinal cord injury. It's a Schedule V drug and should be tapered off slowly.
141
What atypical antipsychotics are used in the management of bipolar disorder?
* quetiapine (Seroquel)
* risperidone (Risperdal)
## Footnote
Both quetiapine and risperidone are used for managing manic or mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. They may require monitoring of metabolic side effects and should be used cautiously in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis.
142
Which melatonin receptor agonist is commonly prescribed for treating insomnia?
* ramelteon (Rozerem)
## Footnote
Ramelteon is a melatonin receptor agonist that aids in sleep onset and does not have the same dependency risk as other sleep medications. It can cause rare sleep behaviors and should be avoided in combination with fluvoxamine.
143
What medication is used for Alzheimer's disease management comes in a transdermal patch?
* rivastigmine (Exelon)
## Footnote
Rivastigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that improves cholinergic neurotransmission. It may cause gastrointestinal side effects like nausea and vomiting and should be used cautiously in patients with renal impairment.
144
What medications are commonly used for the treatment of insomnia?
* temazepam (Restoril)
* zaleplon (Sonata)
* zolpidem (Ambien)
## Footnote
These medications belong to the benzodiazepine and hypnotic classes. They work by enhancing GABA neurotransmission and are typically used for short-term management due to the risk of dependence and bizarre sleep-related behaviors.
145
Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is indicated for depression with comorbid anxiety?
sertraline (Zoloft)
## Footnote
SSRIs are a first-line treatment for depression due to their efficacy and relatively favorable side effect profile.
146
What are some common broad-spectrum anticonvulsants are used to manage seizures?
* topiramate (Topamax)
* valproate (Depakote)
* zonisamide (Zonegran)
## Footnote
These anticonvulsants have varying mechanisms of action, including sodium channel inhibition and modulation of GABAergic activity, making them effective for different types of seizures, including focal and generalized seizures.
147
Name one SSRI and one SNRI that are indicated for anxiety disorders?
* sertraline (Zoloft)
* venlafaxine (Effexor)
## Footnote
Sertraline (an SSRI) and Venlafaxine (an SNRI) are both used in anxiety disorders. Venlafaxine has a higher risk of withdrawal symptoms compared to other antidepressants, requiring careful management of dose changes.
148
Which LAMA medication is used for the management of COPD?
aclidinium (Tudorza Pressair)
## Footnote
Aclidinium is a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) bronchodilator used for maintenance treatment in COPD. It works by causing bronchodilation through reversible, competitive antagonism of airway M3 muscarinic receptors.
149
Which drug is commonly used for smoking cessation?
varenicline (Chantix)
## Footnote
Varenicline acts as a partial agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and is commonly used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and withdrawal symptoms.
150
Which inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used for the treatment of asthma?
* beclomethasone (Qvar)
* budesonide (Entocort)
* fluticasone (Flovent)
* mometasone (Asmanex)
## Footnote
Inhaled corticosteroids are often the first-line treatment for asthma and work by reducing airway inflammation. Monitoring for growth restriction in children and proper inhaler technique is important to minimize side effects such as oral candidiasis.
151
What are the common antihistamines used for allergic rhinitis?
* cetirizine (Zyrtec)
* chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
* diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
* fexofenadine (Allegra)
* loratadine (Claritin)
* hydroxyzine (Vistaril; Atarax)
## Footnote
Second-generation antihistamines like cetirizine, fexofenadine, and loratadine are preferred due to their lower sedative effects compared to first-generation antihistamines.
152
What are the main antitussives used for non-productive cough suppression?
* benzonatate (Tessalon Perles)
* dextromethorphan (Delsym)
## Footnote
Antitussives are used to suppress the cough reflex. Benzonatate works by numbing the stretch receptors in the respiratory tract, while dextromethorphan acts centrally on the cough center in the brain.
153
Which mast cell stabilizer is indicated for allergic conjunctivitis?
cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom, Crolom)
## Footnote
Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer used for allergic conjunctivitis, preventing the release of inflammatory mediators. It is used prophylactically.
154
Which medication is used as expectorants for productive cough?
guaifenesin (Mucinex)
## Footnote
Expectorants like guaifenesin increase the volume and reduce the viscosity of respiratory secretions, helping to clear mucus from the airways through productive coughing.
155
What inhaled medication other than albuterol is preferred for treating exercise-induced bronchospasm?
levalbuterol (Xopenex)
## Footnote
Short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists like levalbuterol are commonly used as rescue medications for acute bronchoconstriction, including exercise-induced episodes.
156
Which inhaled corticosteroid is used for asthma management?
mometasone (Asmanex)
## Footnote
Mometasone is indicated for asthma management and is available as an oral inhalation. It binds to glucocorticoid receptors to inhibit inflammation. Common side effects include headache and throat irritation. It should not be used as the primary treatment for status asthmaticus.
157
What leukotriene receptor antagonist is indicated for asthma?
montelukast (Singulair)
## Footnote
Montelukast is used for asthma and allergic rhinitis. It stabilizes mast cells and eosinophils, preventing the release of inflammatory substances. Neuropsychiatric disorders are a potential side effect, and caution is advised in liver disease.
158
List the LAMA medications are used for COPD management.
* tiotropium (Spiriva)
* umeclidinium (Incruse Ellipta)
## Footnote
Both tiotropium and umeclidinium act by inhibiting acetylcholine at M3 receptors, causing bronchodilation. They are not used for acute bronchospasm. Tiotropium is used for both asthma and COPD, whereas umeclidinium is specifically for COPD.
159
Identify the inactivated vaccines used for pneumococcal disease prevention.
* pneumococcal vaccine 20-valent (Prevnar 20)
* pneumococcal vaccine 23-valent (Pneumovax 23)
## Footnote
Both vaccines promote active immunity against S. pneumoniae. Prevnar 20 is approved for adults 18 and older, while Pneumovax 23 is for those 2 years and older at increased risk.
160
Which drug is a non-first line selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist used for asthma and bronchospasm?
terbutaline (Brethine)
## Footnote
Terbutaline causes smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation. It has a risk of causing tachycardia and muscle tremors and is not recommended for prolonged treatment in pregnant women due to potential maternal heart problems.
161
Which antihistamines are used for seasonal allergic conjunctivitis?
olopatadine (Patanol, Pataday)
## Footnote
Olopatadine is a selective H1 antagonist that inhibits histamine release. It may cause irritation of the eyes and rash. Caution is advised in patients with severe dry eye or keratitis.
162
What live attenuated vaccine is used for yellow fever prevention?
## Footnote
**Learner, please keep in mind that these flashcards are not all in-compassing lists and do not include all of the possible medications in that category. Use the answers given to think of other medications that would fit the prompt.**
yellow fever vaccine (YF-VAX)
## Footnote
YF-VAX provides active immunization against yellow fever. It should not be used in infants younger than 9 months or severely immunocompromised patients.
NAPLEX Top Drugs
flashcards
Decks in class (11)
# Cards
-
Analgesics and Pain Management37
-
Antibiotics, Antivirals, & Anti-Infective Agents72
-
Cardiovascular Agents69
-
Endocrine & Metabolic Agents36
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Bone Health, Vitamins, & Minerals24
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Reproductive Health & Hormones25
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Gastrointestinal Agents29
-
Neurologic Agents81
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Respiratory Agents28
-
Miscellaneous Agents & Vaccines26
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Drug Indication Review162
