Pediatrics Flashcards

Provide developmentally appropriate assessment, diagnosis, and management of pediatric health, including developmental milestones. (90 cards)

1
Q

What should be obtained during the preparation phase of a pediatric physical exam?

A
  • Child’s medical history
  • Birth details
  • Growth milestones
  • Immunizations
  • Family history
  • Previous or current medical conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fill in the blank:

During a pediatric physical exam, a general rule is to perform any part of the exam that requires the most cooperation ______.

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some red flags in the general observation of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Lack of responsiveness
  • Poor growth
  • Significant weight deviation
  • Lethargy
  • Cyanosis
  • Jaundice
  • Evidence of child abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False:

A sunken fontanelle in an infant can represent malnutrition or dehydration.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the significance of an abnormal red reflex in a pediatric eye exam?

A

It can indicate cataracts, corneal abrasion, strabismus, or retinoblastoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are red flags when examining a child’s ears?

A
  • Bulging or erythematous tympanic membrane
  • Swelling
  • Discharge
  • Perforated ear drum
  • Foreign body
  • Low set ears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should be inspected in the nose during a pediatric physical exam?

A
  • Nasal flaring
  • Polyps
  • Epistaxis
  • Discharge
  • Sinus pain/pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are red flags for the mouth, throat, and neck in a pediatric exam?

A
  • Ulcerations
  • Swelling
  • Cyanosis
  • Fissures/cracking on the tongue
  • Cleft palate
  • Tonsillar exudates
  • Tonsillar asymmetry
  • Erythematous/cobblestoning of the pharynx
  • Single/persistent enlarged lymph node
  • Enlarged or nodular thyroid
  • Nuchal rigidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a positive finding in the Barlow test for hip examination?

A

Gentle posterior pressure applied to the flexed and adducted thigh causes the femoral head to slip out of the acetabulum, indicating the hip is dislocatable or unstable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are red flags in the cardiovascular system of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Heart murmurs not identified as benign
  • Irregular heart rate
  • Weak or absent pulses
  • Abnormal posture during activity
  • Activity/exercise intolerance
  • Poor feeding/growth
  • Diaphoresis
  • Decreased level of consciousness
  • Lethargy
  • Cool/pale/mottled skin
  • Cyanosis
  • Prolonged capillary refill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are red flags in the respiratory system of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Labored breathing
  • Accessory muscle use
  • Wheezing
  • Crackles
  • Grunting
  • Nasal flaring
  • Stridor
  • Head bobbing
  • Unilateral paradoxical movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are red flags in the abdominal examination of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Severe tenderness
  • Palpable masses
  • Absent bowel sounds
  • Tinkling sounds
  • Rigid abdomen
  • Rebound tenderness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are red flags in the musculoskeletal system of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Limited range of motion
  • Joint swelling
  • Unequal limb length
  • > 10 degree Cobb angle
  • Dimple/pigmented nevus/sacral hair tuft
  • Hip instability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are red flags in the neurological and developmental assessment of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Developmental delays
  • Abnormal reflexes
  • Significant discrepancies in developmental milestones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are red flags in the skin examination of a pediatric patient?

A
  • Persistent rash
  • Jaundice
  • Unusual lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are red flags in the examination of male genitalia in a pediatric patient?

A
  • Undescended testicle
  • Lesions
  • Hypospadias
  • Hernia
  • Abnormal placement of urethra
  • Discharge/odor
  • Warts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are red flags in the examination of female genitalia in a pediatric patient?

A
  • Enlarged clitoris
  • Prolapsed urethra
  • Cyst or abscess
  • Labial fusion
  • Foreign body
  • Purulent discharge
  • Foul odor
  • Evidence of trauma or blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At what age should a child be able to lift their head when on their tummy?

A

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the motor milestones for a 4-month-old child?

A
  • Holds head steady without support
  • Brings hands to mouth
  • Pushes up on forearms during tummy time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What language/communication skills should a 6-month-old child exhibit?

A
  • Blows “raspberries”
  • Takes turns making sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What social-emotional milestone should a 9-month-old child exhibit?

A

Reacts when caregiver leaves and begins to exhibit ‘stranger danger.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cognitive milestone should a 12-month-old child exhibit?

A

Looks for objects they saw hidden and puts objects in containers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What motor skills should an 18-month-old child have?

A
  • Walks without assistance
  • Scribbles with a crayon
  • Climbs on and off couch without help
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What language/communication skills should a 24-month-old child exhibit?

A
  • Puts at least 2 words together
  • Points to at least 2 body parts
  • Uses gestures, like nodding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
At what **age** can a child kick a ball?
24 months ## Footnote Kicking a ball is a motor skill typically developed by 24 months.
26
What **motor skill** is developed by a 5-year-old child?
Hops on 1 foot ## Footnote Hopping on one foot is a motor milestone for a 5-year-old.
27
# Fill in the blank: By 24 months, a child can walk up at least a few \_\_\_\_\_\_.
stairs ## Footnote Walking up stairs is a developmental milestone for a 24-month-old child.
28
What **language/communication skill** is expected from a 24-month-old child?
Puts at least 2 words together ## Footnote Combining words is a key language milestone at 24 months.
29
# True or False: A 5-year-old child can tell a story with at least 2 events.
True ## Footnote Telling a story with multiple events is a language skill for a 5-year-old.
30
Which **social-emotional skill** is developed by a 24-month-old child?
Notices others and when they are upset ## Footnote Recognizing emotions in others is a social-emotional milestone at 24 months.
31
What **cognitive skill** is demonstrated by a 5-year-old child?
Counts to 10 ## Footnote Counting to 10 is a cognitive milestone for a 5-year-old.
32
# Fill in the blank: By 24 months, a child uses gestures, like \_\_\_\_\_\_.
nodding ## Footnote Using gestures such as nodding is a communication skill at 24 months.
33
What is a **cognitive skill** of a 24-month-old child?
Tries to use switches, knobs, or buttons ## Footnote Exploring objects with switches, knobs, or buttons is a cognitive skill at 24 months.
34
Which **motor skill** is a 5-year-old child expected to have?
Can button ## Footnote Buttoning is a fine motor skill developed by age 5.
35
What **social-emotional activity** can a 5-year-old child partake in?
Takes turns with other children ## Footnote Taking turns is a social-emotional skill for a 5-year-old.
36
What is a **language/communication skill** of a 5-year-old child?
Simple rhyming ## Footnote Rhyming is a language skill developed by age 5.
37
What is the **expected weight change** for term neonates in the first few days of life?
Term neonates may lose up to 10 percent of their birth weight in the first few days of life and typically regain their birth weight by 2 weeks of age.
38
By what **age** do infants typically double their birth weight?
Infants double their birth weight by 4 to 6 months of age.
39
# Fill in the blank: Infants triple their birth weight by \_\_\_\_\_\_.
one year
40
Which **developmental milestone** is expected at 2 months of age?
Looks at caregiver’s face, reacts to loud sounds, holds head up when on tummy.
41
At what **age** does **cooing** typically occur?
4 months
42
What are the **expected developmental milestones** at 6 months?
* Knows familiar people * Laughs * Puts things in their mouth * Rolls from stomach to back * Leans on hands to support themselves if sat up
43
# True or False: By 9 months, infants may be shy or fearful around strangers.
True
44
What **developmental milestones** are expected at **12 months**?
* Plays pat-a-cake * Waves “bye” * Says mama and dada * Puts object in a container * Looks for hidden objects * Pulls up to stand * “Cruising” * Drinks from a cup * Pincer grasp
45
# Fill in the blank: By 15 months, a child can mimic other children and say \_\_\_\_\_\_.
1 or 2 words in addition to mama or dada
46
What **developmental milestones** are expected at **18 months**?
* Points to interesting things * Looks at book pages * 3 or more words in addition to mama or dada * Copies caregiver * Pushes a toy car * Walks independently * Tries to use a spoon
47
At what **age** do children typically **run and kick a ball**?
24 months
48
What is the **mean age** for the first signs of **puberty**?
8.8 to 9.9 years
49
# Fill in the blank: The mean age of a female's first menstrual cycle is \_\_\_\_\_\_ years.
12.2
50
What is **precocious puberty**?
Onset of puberty at an age two or more standard deviations (SD) below the mean age of onset.
51
Describe **Stage 1** of male genitalia development.
Prepubertal, without pubic hair.
52
What changes occur in **Stage 2** of female breast development?
Breast buds, enlarged areola.
53
What is **adolescent idiopathic scoliosis**?
Lateral curvature of the spine, most common type occurs after 10 years of age.
54
What is the **presentation** of Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Anterior knee pain that is exacerbated with trauma and use and is relieved with rest.
55
What is the **treatment** for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
* Icing * NSAIDs for short term pain relief * No return to sports restrictions if patient is able to tolerate continued activity
56
What type of **pediatric fracture** is characterized by a compression/FOOSH injury?
Buckle fracture
57
What is a **greenstick fracture**?
A fracture where the fracture line does not extend completely through the affected bone.
58
What is a **Salter-Harris fracture**?
Classification system grades physeal fractures. Severity increases as the Salter-Harris grade increases.
59
What are the **characteristics** of fractures associated with abuse?
* Long bone fractures in non-ambulatory children * Metaphyseal corner and bucket-handle fractures * Rib fractures * Fractures of the sternum, scapula, or spinous processes * Multiple fractures in various stages of healing * Bilateral acute long-bone fractures * Vertebral body fractures and subluxations in the absence of a history of high force trauma * Digital fractures in children younger than 36 months of age or without a corresponding history * Displaced physeal fractures, especially transphyseal distal humerus fractures, in nonambulatory children * Complex skull fractures in children
60
What is the **presentation** of gastroesophageal reflux in infants?
Effortless regurgitation in an otherwise healthy infant.
61
What is the **treatment** for gastroesophageal reflux in infants?
Keep infant upright after feedings, avoid smoking around infant.
62
What is **pyloric stenosis**?
Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter causes an obstruction.
63
What is the **presentation** of pyloric stenosis?
Projectile, non-bilious vomiting that occurs immediately after being fed, followed by an infant demanding to be fed again.
64
What is **intussusception**?
Intestine “telescopes” in on itself causing sudden, intermittent, severe abdominal cramping.
65
What is **cryptorchidism**?
A testis that does not descend by 4 months of age.
66
What is the **most common renal malignancy** in children?
Wilms tumor
67
What are the **characteristics** of pathologic murmurs?
* Grade 3 or higher * Holosystolic timing * Maximum intensity at the left upper sternal border * Harsh or blowing qualities * Systolic click * Diastolic murmur * Increases in intensity with upright position
68
What is the **most common congenital anomaly**?
Congenital heart disease | (CHD)
69
What is the **most common cause of typical bacterial pneumonia** in children?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
70
What is **cystic fibrosis**?
Life shortening, autosomal recessive disease, caused by mutations in the CFTR gene.
71
What is the **presentation** of croup?
Inspiratory stridor, cough (“bark-like” cough) and hoarseness.
72
What is the **treatment** for mild croup?
Single dose of dexamethasone, or prednisolone.
73
What is **bronchiolitis**?
A clinical syndrome of respiratory distress that occurs in children <2 years old.
74
What is the **presentation** of asthma in pediatrics?
Cough and wheeze are the most common asthmatic symptoms in pediatrics.
75
What is the **FEV1/FVC ratio** that indicates airflow obstruction in asthma?
FEV1/FVC <0.85
76
What are the **recommended treatment** options for Step 1 pediatric asthma?
* SABA PRN * Low-dose ICS whenever SABA is used
77
# Fill in the blank: In Step 2 pediatric asthma, daytime symptoms occur \_\_\_\_\_\_ days a week.
3 to 6
78
What are the recommended **asthma treatment** options for Step 3 pediatric asthma?
* Daily low-dose ICS-formoterol as reliever and maintenance therapy * Daily low-dose ICS-LABA, with SABA PRN * Daily medium-dose ICS, with SABA PRN
79
# True or False: In Step 4 pediatric asthma, the FEV1 is less than 60%.
True
80
What is the **typical age range** for roseola infantum cases?
Younger than 2 years old, with a peak between 7 months to 13 months.
81
What is the **main treatment approach** for roseola infantum?
Supportive care, manage fever
82
What is a **key characteristic** of the rash in scarlet fever?
The rash is diffusely erythematous and blanchable, with papular elevations giving a 'sandpaper' quality.
83
What **causes** erythema infectiosum (Fifth's disease)?
Parvovirus B19
84
What is a **distinctive feature** of the rash in erythema infectiosum?
'Slapped cheek' rash followed by a 'lace-like' rash on the trunk and limbs.
85
What is the **typical progression** of the measles rash?
The rash begins on the head and spreads downward (cephalocaudally), rarely involving palms and soles.
86
What are '**Koplik spots**' associated with?
Measles
87
What is an **essential treatment** for all children with severe measles, or children who reside in resource-limited settings?
Vitamin A
88
# Fill in the blank: Live vaccines must be given either on the same day or a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_\_ days apart.
28
89
Which **vaccines** are considered live vaccines?
* Varicella * MMR
90
# True or False: An egg allergy is a contraindication to the influenza vaccine.
False