Small Ruminants Flashcards

Assess health and production problems in sheep and goats, integrating principles of nutrition, reproduction, and infectious disease control. (44 cards)

1
Q

Which infectious organism commonly causes epizootic abortion in the second half of gestation in sheep?

A

Campylobacter spp.

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2
Q

Severe pruritus, persistent rubbing resulting in wool loss, and impaired locomotion are classic clinical signs of what disease of sheep?

A

Scrapie

(a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy)

It is a fatal neurodegenerative disorder with no treatment.

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3
Q

In which two locations are male small ruminants predisposed to urethral obstruction?

A

Sigmoid flexure and urethral process

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4
Q

Several lambs in a flock have papules, crusted ulcerations, and inflammation of the oral tissues. The shepherd has a papule on his finger that is new and similar in appearance.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Contagious ecthyma

(a.k.a “orf”)

It is caused by a parapox virus.

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5
Q

Which etiologic agent is associated with caseous necrotic lesions in lymph nodes or visceral organs of small ruminants?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

(causes caseous lymphadenitis)

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6
Q

Which congenital defect is linked to the polled gene in goats?

A

Intersexuality

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7
Q

What is the normal range of urine pH in ruminants?

A

6.0 to 9.0

The pH > 8.0 can cause a false-positive reading on protein dipstick squares, which should not be misinterpreted as indicating proteinuria. Use protein:creatinine ratio to confirm.

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8
Q

Which infectious disease of cattle typically can occur after contact with wildebeest or sheep? What is the causative agent?

A
  • Disease: malignant catarrhal fever (MCF)
  • Causative agents:
    • alcelaphine herpesvirus -1 (AlHV-1, African strain)
    • ovine herpesvirus -2 (OvHV-2, sheep isolate)
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9
Q

There is a foreign disease of sheep and goats seen in Africa, India, and the Middle East. Characteristic signs include purulent ocular discharge and erosive stomatitis. What is the disease?

A

Peste des petits ruminants

(caused by a Morbillivirus)

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10
Q

Name three systemic infectious diseases associated with ulcerative and/or erosive lesions in the gastrointestinal tract of ruminants.

A
  • Bovine viral diarrhea virus
  • Rinderpest
  • Malignant catarrhal fever (AHv1/OvH2)
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11
Q

In a sheep with chronic copper toxicosis, massive release of copper from the liver can trigger which life-threatening event?

A

Severe, acute intravascular hemolysis

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12
Q

What is the name of the nasal bot of sheep?

A

Oestrus ovis

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13
Q

What are the potential outcomes of toxoplasmosis in a pregnant ewe?

A
  • Embryonic death
  • Resorption
  • Fetal death
  • Mummification
  • Abortion
  • Stillbirth
  • Neonatal death
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14
Q

Which disorder of sheep is commonly caused by Dichelobacter nodosus and is treated topically with copper sulfate?

A

Footrot

(pododermatitis)

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15
Q

Which organism is known for causing abortion “storms” in sheep?

A

Campylobacter fetus sbsp. fetus

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16
Q

What are three zoonotic organisms that cause abortion in sheep?

A
  • Brucella melitensis
  • Coxiella burnetti
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Chlamydia psittaci
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Salmonella spp.
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17
Q

A pregnant ewe develops neurologic signs, including incoordination, circling, and bruxism. During your examination you also identify ketonuria. The animal is due to lamb in two weeks.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pregnancy toxemia

(ketosis, twin-lamb disease)

Occurs during the last two to four weeks of gestation and is caused by a negative energy balance resulting from increased demand due to rapid fetal growth in late gestation and insufficient caloric intake.

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18
Q

You examine an adult goat and notice peripheral lymphadenopathy. Before aspirating one of the lymph nodes you are justifiably concerned about zoonosis due to which etiologic agent?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

(a.k.a. caseous lymphadenitis)

19
Q

After a week and a half of rain, numerous individuals in a flock of sheep exhibit matted, discolored, malodorous fleece.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Ovine fleece rot

(caused by proliferation of Pseudomonas spp.)

This disease is economically important because the affected sheep are predisposed to myiasis, and the value of the wool is decreased.

20
Q

A herd of dairy goats has recently experienced an outbreak of general ill thrift and abortions. Several kids have swollen joints. Culture of joint fluid does not result in any growth using a standard culture procedure.

What is the most likely cause?

A

Mycoplasma spp.

Increasingly, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used for identifying mycoplasma organisms.

21
Q

You examine a recumbent goat. The animal has the head pulled into the flank. Prior to recubency, the owner noted the animal was circling in one direction. Name two risk factors that have been associated with the infectious disease most likely causing these signs.

A
  • Sudden changes in weather, feeding, or general management
  • Stress from poor nutrition, parasitism, or other concurrent disease
  • Crowding
  • Confinement in winter
  • Feeding of silage, particularly poor quality silage

(all predispose to listeriosis)

22
Q

In cases of acute coccidiosis in sheep, what is the confirmatory diagnostic test of choice?

A

Direct smear or fecal flotation

23
Q

What is a species-specific characteristic of the leukogram of cattle and sheep?

A

Number of lymphocytes exceeds number of neutrophils in healthy animals

24
Q

White focal plaques on the cotyledons of sheep and goats are suggestive of which abortifacient agent?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

25
Which **viral agent** is associated with **pneumonia**, **mastitis**, **arthritis**, and **wasting** in sheep?
Maedi-Visna virus | (family: *Retroviridae*)
26
This **trematode** causes severe disease in sheep but often mild clinical disease in cattle and cervids.
*Fascioloides magna* | (the giant liver fluke)
27
A pregnant sheep on overgrazed, wet pasture has extremely pale mucous membranes. **What is the most likely causative parasite?**
*Haemonchus* spp. | (the barber pole worm) ## Footnote The most common pathogenic GI parasite in sheep and goats; causes anemia.
28
What **two nerves** should be blocked with local anesthetic prior to **disbudding** goats?
* Cornual branch of zygomaticotemporal nerve (as in calves) * Cornual branch of infratochlear nerve
29
A lamb is **stillborn**, with grotesque deformations including **cyclopia**. Which **toxic plant** was likely consumed by the ewe during gestation?
*Veratrum* spp. | (skunk cabbage) ## Footnote Ingestion on day 13-14 of gestation causes cyclopia.
30
Post-mortem examination of a sheep with a history of decreased appetite, diarrhea, and wasting reveals marked irregular thickening of the abomasal wall with a convoluted appearance (sometimes likened to Moroccan leather). **What is the most likely cause?**
Ostertagiasis
31
Several animals in a goat herd have clinical signs that include swollen carpi, stiff gait, and difficulty rising. Some animals also have a firm udder on palpation, and coughing is noted. **What is the most likely etiology?**
Caprine arthritis encephalitis | (genus lentivirus, family Retroviridae)
32
A pet Nigerian dwarf goat presents with colic, bloat, tremors, and ataxia after escaping his pen and roaming the yard. **What ornamental plant could be responsible for his clinical signs?**
Rhododendron
33
A flock of fast-growing, apparently healthy feedlot lambs presents with rapid onset of depression, colic, and profuse diarrhea with neurologic signs. **What is the most likely disease agent?**
*Clostridium perfringens* type D | (a.k.a. "pulpy kidney disease")
34
What **mineral deficiency** can cause **"swayback"** in **neonatal lambs and kids** and also loss of **pigmentation** in black-wooled sheep?
Copper
35
What is the **cause** and typical **age** of lamb affected by **lamb dysentery**?
* *Clostridium perfringens* types B and C * Seen in lambs < three weeks old ## Footnote Beta toxin from these bacteria causes severe enteritis, dysentery, and high mortality in young lambs (and kids, calves, piglets, and foals).
36
What are the **routine “core” vaccines** recommended for sheep in North America?
*Clostridium perfringens* types C and D and tetanus (CDT) vaccine ## Footnote These vaccines protect against enterotoxemia and tetanus, the most common preventable causes of death in sheep.
37
What is the **FAMACHA system** used for in small ruminants?
To score anemia caused by *Haemonchus contortus* using the color of the inferior palpebral conjunctiva on a scale of 1–5 ## Footnote It provides a sensitive, on-farm method to identify animals needing targeted anthelmintic treatment.
38
What are the classic clinical signs of **ovine progressive pneumonia** (OPP) in adult sheep?
* Progressive wasting * Chronic respiratory distress (coughing, dyspnea, nasal discharge) * ± Indurative mastitis or neurologic signs in sheep > four years old ## Footnote OPP is a slowly progressive retroviral infection.
39
What is the most common type of **urolith** in goats and one **key dietary prevention** strategy?
Struvite stones; prevent by feeding a calcium:phosphorus ratio of ~2:1 and acidifying urine with ammonium chloride. ## Footnote Struvite stones form on high-grain, low-calcium diets, and dietary management helps reduce risk.
40
What is the **cause** of **pizzle rot** in male small ruminants and a key **management** strategy?
* *Corynebacterium renale* * Manage with a low-protein diet and proper preputial hygiene ## Footnote High-protein diets increase urinary urea, which *C. renale* converts to irritating ammonia, leading to ulceration of the prepuce.
41
What are the classic clinical signs of **lambs** affected by **Border disease**?
Hairy, low birth-weight lambs with: * muscle tremors * shortened bones * poor survival (a.k.a. "hairy shaker lambs") ## Footnote Due to fetal infection early in gestation with Border disease virus, leading to CNS and musculoskeletal abnormalities.
42
What is the **vector for bluetongue virus** in ruminants, and what is the main **mechanism** causing clinical signs?
* *Culicoides* biting midges * Vascular endothelial damage leading to edema, hemorrhage, and inflammation ## Footnote Bluetongue virus targets capillary endothelium, causing increased permeability, coagulation, and tissue damage, which produces the characteristic clinical signs.
43
A lactating ewe on lush green pasture suddenly throws her head back, bellows, gallops blindly, and has severe paddling convulsions. **What is the appropriate treatment for the top differential?**
Slow IV magnesium and calcium, followed by subcutaneous and oral magnesium supplementation | (for grass tetany a.k.a. hypomagnesemic tetany) ## Footnote Also minimize any stimulation to prevent fatal convulsions.
44
What type of **parasitic infection** is commonly associated with outbreaks of infectious **necrotic hepatitis** (black disease) in **sheep**?
Liver fluke infection | (*Fasciola hepatica*) ## Footnote Fluke migration damages liver tissue, creating an environment for *Clostridium novyi* type B spores to germinate and cause toxemia.