Pig Flashcards

Interpret swine health challenges and implement appropriate biosecurity, disease prevention, and herd management protocols. (41 cards)

1
Q

In pigs at post-mortem, milk spots in the liver are evidence of which disease process?

A

Ascaris suum migration

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2
Q

What is the pathogenesis of edema disease in pigs?

A
  • Subsequent to dietary changes at weaning, Escherichia coli proliferates in the small intestine
  • It produces an exotoxin (ETEC)
  • ETEC spreads hematogenously, causing generalized vascular endothelial injury
  • Resulting in fluid loss and edema
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3
Q

Cofeeding of which drug with ionophores can lead to ionophore toxicosis in pigs?

A

Tiamulin

(ionophores alone at routine doses are not toxic)

It inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzymes needed to metabolize ionophores, leading to ionophore toxicosis if co-administered.

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4
Q

Which infectious agent is commonly associated with rectal strictures in swine?

A

Salmonella spp.

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5
Q

Which statement about pregnancy failure in sows is false?

  • A. Embryonic death after day 12 is associated with prolonged interestrus intervals
  • B. Infectious diseases causing fetal mummification always lead to death of entire litter
  • C. Birth of piglets at 110 days gestation is considered an abortion
  • D. Most infections that result in mummification occur between 35 and 70 days’ gestation
A

B. Infectious diseases causing fetal mummification always lead to death of entire litter

The other answer choices are true.

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6
Q

What is the cause of mulberry heart disease in pigs?

A

Vitamin E and selenium deficiency

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7
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection in pigs?

A

Chronic, persistent, non-productive cough

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8
Q

Which two body systems are most commonly affected in the chronic form of infection with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in pigs?

A
  • Musculoskeletal (arthritis)
  • Cardiovascular (endocarditis)

(signs of chronic erysipelas)

Acute disease is characterized by the classic diamond skin lesions (cutaneous erythema); fever, lethargy, and anorexia; and septicemia and death.

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9
Q

What are two common viral etiologies of respiratory disease in pigs?

A
  • Swine influenza
  • Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (PRRS)
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10
Q

Name three differential diagnoses for vesicles on the lips, nostrils, and coronary bands of pigs.

A
  • Foot and mouth disease
  • Swine vesicular disease
  • Vesicular exanthema
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Seneca Valley virus
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11
Q

Which coccidian parasite is associated with post-weaning diarrhea in five- to six -week-old piglets?

A

Isospora suis

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12
Q

Pigs in modern, intensive production units are weaned at approximately which age:

  • A. 3 weeks (range 3-4)
  • B. 4 weeks (range 4-5)
  • C. 5 weeks (range 5-6)
  • D. 6 weeks (range 6-7)
A

A. 3 weeks of age (range 3-4)

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13
Q

A viral disease of mice which can result in late gestation pregnancy loss and disease in nursing piglets in swine herds is:

  • A. Encephalomyocarditis virus
  • B. Japanese B encephalitis virus
  • C. Coronavirus
  • D. Rubulovirus
A

A. Encephalomyocarditis virus

Rodents shed this virus in urine and feces, contaminating swine food and water sources.

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14
Q

A herd of pigs shows acute thirst, constipation, and sporadic seizures, characteristically beginning with a sitting position and progressing to opisthotonos. Histologically, there is cerebral polioencephalomalacia.

What is the most likely cause?

A

“Salt poisoning”

(colloquial name for hypernatremia)

Actually, this is water deprivation causing hypernatremia; true ingestion of excessive salt causes vomiting and diarrhea.

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15
Q

Your arrival from overseas is marred by the confiscation of pork sausage you brought. Name two viral diseases, both potentially contracted by pigs feeding on uncooked garbage containing infected pig tissues, that are the basis for this action.

A
  • Hog cholera (synonym: classical swine fever)
  • African swine fever
  • Foot and mouth disease
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16
Q

Regarding pregnancy failure in pigs, most infections resulting in mummification occur in what gestational age range?

A

Between days 35 - 70 of gestation

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17
Q

Atrophic rhinitis in pigs has two etiologic agents. What are they?

A
  • Pasteurella multocida: causes severe, progressive disease
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica: causes mild, nonprogressive disease

Other additive factors include poor ventilation, crowding, mixing of animals, and concurrent diseases.

18
Q

An adult pig carcass shows emaciation, dehydration, and fecal staining. The dominant lesion is diffuse colitis, with sharp demarcation at the cecum (no small intestinal lesions). Histologically, spirochete organisms are seen in the colonic crypts.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Swine dysentery

(Brachyspira hyodysenteriae infection)

19
Q

A group of growing piglets exhibits erythematous papules and pustules on the ventral and lateral abdomen, lateral thorax, medial forelimbs, and thighs.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Swinepox

A mild viral infection with very low mortality which occurs worldwide and is endemic in regions with intensive swine production.

20
Q

A recently weaned pig develops sudden edema of the eyelids, neurologic signs, and sudden death. Which bacterial pathogen is the most likely cause of this condition?

A

Shiga toxin–producing Escherichia coli (specifically F18+ E. coli strains) is responsible for edema disease in weaned pigs

21
Q

An outbreak on a hog farm causes high fever, moderate anorexia, recumbency, and reddening of the skin in nearly all pigs.
Which reportable disease is the most likely cause?

A

African swine fever

Reportable!

22
Q

What is the most effective strategy for preventing porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) in North American swine herds?

A

Strict herd biosecurity +/- vaccination

This includes quarantine of incoming animals, control of farm traffic, and vaccination where appropriate to reduce virus introduction and spread.

23
Q

Which gross lesion is characteristic of Glässer disease in pigs?

A

Fibrinous polyserositis and meningitis

(cause is Haemophilus parasuis infection)

24
Q

At a hobby farm, a cow and two sheep have a two-day history of severe pruritus and self-trauma. On exam: weakness, recumbency, hypersalivation. These animals have been exposed to feral pigs.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aujeszky disease

(a.k.a. pseudorabies)

25
Name **two** of the three **coronaviruses** seen in swine worldwide.
* Transmissible gastroenteritis virus (TGEV) * Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus (PEDV) * Porcine deltacoronavirus (PDCV)
26
Which answer correctly matches the **mycotoxin** with its **source** and clinical **presentation** in swine? * A. Aflatoxin: Fusarium spp.; hyperestrogenism, reproductive failure * B. Zearalenone: Aspergillus spp.; PU/PD, anorexia, gastric ulcers * C. Deoxynivalenol (DON): Fusarium spp.; feed refusal, vomiting, diarrhea * D. Ochratoxin: Claviceps spp.; ascites, icterus
C. Deoxynivalenol (DON): *Fusarium* spp.; feed refusal, vomiting, diarrhea
27
In pigs, what does the term "**teat-order**" refer to?
Describes the development of a preference of each piglet for a particular nipple ## Footnote This behavioral characteristic ensures that feeding of large litters remains effective and the piglets do not spend most of their time re-establishing a feeding order.
28
How can a producer **hasten puberty** or **synchronize estrus** in gilts?
Expose gilts to boar for 15 minutes/day
29
What is the **causative agent** of **proliferative enteritis** of swine, and in which other species does this same bacteria cause **proliferative enteritis**?
* Causative agent: *Lawsonia intracellularis* * Other affected species: horses (weanling foals get proliferative enteropathy), hamsters ("wet tail")
30
A commercial swine barn experiences sudden mass **deaths** with **respiratory distress** after **manure pit agitation**. What is the most likely cause?
Hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) gas toxicity | (released from agitated manure pits) ## Footnote This gas inhibits cellular respiration by blocking cytochrome C oxidase, and can cause rapid asphyxia and death in pigs and humans.
31
Which **porcine virus** causes disease that is characterized by stillbirth, mummification, early embryonic death, and infertility?
Porcine parvovirus ## Footnote It almost exclusively affects first-parity sows because it is ubiquitous and almost all sows worldwide develop immunity prior to second pregnancy.
32
In a herd experiencing sporadic sudden deaths across all age groups—from piglets to sows—necropsy reveals petechial hemorrhages in multiple organs and fibrinous pleuritis and pericarditis. **What is the most likely diagnosis?**
*Actinobacillus suis* infection ## Footnote *A. suis* causes septicemia with multifocal hemorrhages and fibrinous inflammation in pigs of all ages. The “all ages affected” excludes differentials like *A. pleuropneumoniae*, *H. parasuis*, *Salmonella*, and *Streptococcus suis*.
33
Name one disease caused by **porcine circovirus type 2** (PCV2) infection in pigs.
* Post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS) * Porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS) * Reproductive failure (late-term abortions and mummified fetuses in gilts) ## Footnote PCV2 is a small DNA virus that causes systemic disease in growing pigs and reproductive losses in gilts; vaccination has made these syndromes uncommon in well-managed herds.
34
Different species of this bacterial genus cause lameness and swollen joints in both nursery and finishing pigs. **What is the genus of bacteria responsible?** * A. *Streptococcus* * B. *Mycoplasma* * C. *Erysipelothrix* * D. *Haemophilus*
B. *Mycoplasma* ## Footnote *M. hyorhinis* (in pigs 3–10 weeks old) and *M. hyosynoviae* (in pigs 10–20 weeks old) are distinct species that cause age-related arthritis and lameness syndromes in pigs.
35
Vesicular lesions on the snout, oral mucosa, and coronary bands in pigs have differentials that include foot-and-mouth disease, swine vesicular disease, and vesicular stomatitis. **What other disease causes clinically identical signs and must be ruled out?**
Seneca Valley virus ## Footnote It produces vesicular lesions clinically indistinguishable from several foreign animal diseases, so quarantine and report suspected cases immediately for diagnostic testing. Prognosis is usually good but may cause high mortality in neonates.
36
Name **one key feature** that differentiates *Streptococcus suis* infection from Glässer’s disease (*Glaesserella parasuis*) in **pigs**.
*S. suis*: * can cause endocarditis (a key lesion not seen with Glässer’s) * is gram-positive (*G. parasuis* is gram-negative) * is zoonotic (Glässers is not)
37
Which form of **mange** most often affects **swine**?
Sarcoptic mange | (caused by *Sarcoptes scabiei var. suis*) ## Footnote Demodectic mange is rare in domestic pigs.
38
What are the typical clinical signs of **Trichinellosis in pigs**?
None; pigs are usually asymptomatic ## Footnote Trichinellosis in swine is primarily a zoonotic concern, and humans can become ill after consuming undercooked infected meat.
39
Which of the following statements about **classical swine fever** (CSF, a.k.a. hog cholera) is **true**? * A. Caused by a DNA virus, low mortality in swine, primarily affects cattle * B. Mildly contagious, caused by a gram-negative bacteria, endemic in US swine population * C. Reportable, caused by a Flavivirus, often high mortality in pigs * D. Caused by a prion, endemic in wild birds, prevented by vaccination in porcine industry
C. Reportable, caused by a Flavivirus, often high mortality in pigs
40
A litter of piglets one to three weeks of age presents with pale mucous membranes, weakness, tachycardia, and tachypnea. **What is the most likely cause?**
Iron deficiency anemia | (can be prevented or treated with injectable iron) ## Footnote Piglets have low iron stores and rapid growth. Without supplementation, they develop microcytic, hypochromic anemia that impairs oxygen delivery.
41
Why is **vitamin D deficiency** seen in production **swine**?
Because they have limited exposure to sunlight in commercial housing | (which reduces skin synthesis of vitamin D) ## Footnote Vitamin D is essential for calcium and phosphate regulation for bone growth; indoor-reared pigs rely almost entirely on dietary supplementation to prevent rickets and fractures.