1
Q
An adult intact male stray dog from a coastal city in Louisiana is presented with nodular pinkish gray hemorrhagic penile masses near the bulbus glandis. Wright’s-stained fine needle aspirates show homogenous populations of large, round cells with distinctive centrally located nucleoli and mitotic figures.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the curative treatment?
A
- Diagnosis: Transmissible venereal tumor (TVT)
- Treatment:
- Surgery to debulk and stimulate immune response
- Vincristine
- intra-tumoral if only localized
- IV if multifocal/metastatic
Histopath or PCR on biopsy of tissue from surgery can confirm the Dx.
2
Q
How do dogs typically become infected by Neorickettsia helminthoeca?
A
Ingestion of raw fish parasitized by Nanophyteus salmincola (a trematode), which in turn carry N. helminthoeca
3
Q
The strongest stimulus for post-prandial gallbladder contraction in dogs is provided by which hormone?
A
Cholecystokinin
(CCK)
Produced in the duodenum.
4
Q
What is the most common oral neoplasm in dogs?
A
Malignant melanoma
5
Q
Which canine breed is commonly reported to have vacuolated (grey) eosinophils?
A
Greyhounds
6
Q
What is the first canine oral tumor to have a commercially available vaccine approved for use by oncologists to treat the disease?
A
Malignant melanoma
7
Q
Which of these abnormalities is most common in the CBC of dogs with lead toxicosis?
- A. Nucleated red blood cells
- B. Basophilic stippling
- C. Anemia
A
A. Nucleated red blood cells
Nucleated red blood cells: 54% of cases
Basophilic stippling: 25%
Anemia: 8%
8
Q
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?
A
Malignancy
Partially due to PTHrP, but additional factors likely play a role.
9
Q
What is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder of dogs?
A
von Willebrand disease
10
Q
A dog presents bright, alert, and responsive, seemingly not painful, but unable to close the mouth or prehend food. This is most likely a case of:
A
Trigeminal neuritis
This resolves spontaneously in two to three weeks.
11
Q
What is the Triadan number system for the permanent left maxillary canine tooth?
A
204
12
Q
What is the most common embryologic defect responsible that causes a vascular ring anomaly in the dog?
A
Persistent right aortic arch
13
Q
What is the diagnostic test of choice for initial screening of dogs for brucellosis?
A
Rapid slide agglutination test
(RSAT)
Agar-gel immunodiffusion (AGID) is confirmatory.
14
Q
A dog has a high serum ionized calcium level and a normal serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) level. The results are repeatable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Normally, PTH is low in the face of hypercalcemia.
15
Q
What are three anatomic sites of predilection for hemangiosarcoma in the dog?
A
- Spleen
- Right atrium
- Skin
Metastases commonly occur in the liver and/or lungs, and rarely in the kidneys or other organs.
16
Q
Which cardiac valve is least likely to be affected in a dog with bacterial endocarditis?
A
Pulmonic
17
Q
Which gastrointestinal disturbance in dogs can occur with lead toxicosis, hypoadrenocorticism, and myasthenia gravis?
A
Megaesophagus
18
Q
In the bitch, what does a greenish or brown, moderate-to-large volume, non-malodorous discharge suggest during the post-partum period?
A
Nothing
(this describes lochia - a normal process)
Infection unlikely when vaginal discharge has no odor.
19
Q
In order to determine whether a dog’s second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block is physiologic (vagal) or pathologic, which drug is administered as a diagnostic test?
A
Atropine
Physiologic: AV block disappears
Pathologic: it remains
20
Q
A dog has a Schirmer tear test result of 6 mm/minute in both eyes. What is the most accurate interpretation - inadequate, adequate, or excessive tear production?
A
Inadequate
(normal ≥ 15 mm/min)
21
Q
What are the two most common locations for canine appendicular osteosarcoma?
A
- Distal radius
- Proximal humerus
Think AWAY from the elbow but NEAR the knee.
22
Q
Which organism is most likely to be cultured from canine pyometra?
A
Escherichia coli
It is a normal inhabitant of the vagina so can ascend to the uterus when conditions are right.
23
Q
Tremors or facial rubbing in a bitch that whelped three weeks earlier is caused by which disorder?
A
Hypocalcemia
(a.k.a. eclampsia, puerperal tetany)
24
Q
Which embryologic defect is likely if the lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog shows evidence of a persistant dorsal mesothelial remnant?
A
Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia
25
How often is osteochondritis dissecans (**OCD**) **bilateral** in dogs?
In one-third of cases over all
## Footnote
Up to 68% of shoulder OCD is bilateral
26
When performing incisional **gastropexy** after gastric dilatation volvulus (**GDV**) in the dog, to which **side of the body wall** is the stomach sutured?
Right
27
In dogs, almost all documented **meniscal tears** following **cranial cruciate ligament rupture** involve which portion of the meniscus?
Caudal horn of the medial meniscus
28
Name the **four** components of **brachycephalic syndrome**.
1. Stenotic nares
2. Elongated soft palate
3. Hypoplastic trachea
4. Everted laryngeal saccules
## Footnote
Some consider a fifth disorder, laryngeal collapse, as part of the syndrome as well.
29
**Bone marrow hypoplasia** has been described in dogs receiving which types of **dewormers**?
Benzimidazoles
## Footnote
Notably albendazole and fenbendazole.
30
What are **dermoid sinuses**, and which **breed** of dog is strongly predisposed to having them?
* Embryonic defects presenting as focal invaginations of the skin on the dorsal midline; the deepest ones are continuous with the subarachnoid space/spinal cord
* They are also called "pilonidal cysts," and they occur almost exclusively in Rhodesian ridgebacks
31
What are the treatment options for **fibrosarcoma** in a dog?
* Surgical resection
* Radiation therapy
* Chemotherapy
## Footnote
All may all be appropriate, depending on the location of the tumor, presence or absence of metastasis, availability of treatment modalities, and client wishes and finances.
32
A nine-month-old Labrador retriever has shifting-leg lameness and radiopacities in the medullary cavities of both ulnae and radii bilaterally.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Panosteitis
33
Which **sweetener** used in sugar-free gum has been associated with **hepatic dysfunction** and **acute liver failure** in some dogs?
Xylitol
34
What are the **vector** and the causative **organism** of **salmon poisoning** in dogs?
* Vector: *Nanophyteus salmincola*
* Organism: *Neorickettsia helminthoeca*
35
A dog has a cervical salivary mucocele that requires excision, but the lesion hangs on the ventral midline of the neck.
**What is the easiest way to determine which side the mucocele is on?**
## Footnote
i.e., which side to operate on
Place the dog in dorsal recumbency and the mucocele will roll/fall to the affected side
36
An eight-month-old Yorkshire terrier has a markedly prolonged anesthetic recovery after surgical treatment of a recent urethral obstruction caused by urate uroliths. He has a history of intermittent mental dullness prior to surgery.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Portosystemic shunt
## Footnote
Extrahepatic portosystemic vascular anomalies are most often seen in small, terrier-type dog breeds.
37
In canine patients with **gallbladder mucoceles**, what are the **two** most common clinical signs on physical exam?
* Abdominal pain
* Icterus
38
Which test is done after **mitotane induction** to evaluate the efficacy of therapy in dogs with **hyperadrenocorticism**?
ACTH stimulation test
39
Name **three** different **treatments** that can be used to treat canine **hyperadrenocorticism**.
* Mitotane (o,p'-DDD)
* Trilostane
* Ketoconazole
* L-deprenyl (selegeline)
* Surgery
## Footnote
Surgical options:
* adrenalectomy if primary adrenal source
* rarely hypophysectomy for pituitary-based disease
40
A Siberian husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of depigmentation, erythema and crusting of the dorsal muzzle, periorbital region, planum nasale and lips.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Uveodermatologic syndrome
| (Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)
41
What is the **primary differential** for a one-month-old puppy with a **dome-shaped head** and **bilateral ventrolateral strabismus**?
Congenital hydrocephalus
42
**Hyperkeratosis** and **crusting of the footpads** are possible clinical signs associated with which **morbillivirus** of dogs?
Canine distemper virus
| (also see enamel hypoplasia in unerupted or partially erupted teeth)
## Footnote
This is seen in dogs that survive the acute (fever, GI/respiratory signs, encephalomyelitis) phase of the disease.
43
A dog with acute, non-productive retching, visible abdominal distention, and tympanic gas on auscultation of the abdomen (positive "ping" sign on abdominal percussion) should have at least one radiograph taken of its abdomen.
**Which view would be most useful for your suspected diagnosis?**
Right lateral
| (for gastric dilatation/volvulus)
44
How long will it take for **anti-RBC antibodies** to form when a dog receives an **incompatible blood transfusion**?
Four to 14 days
## Footnote
These antibodies can cause hemolysis.
45
Which type of **heart disease** is most common in the **Doberman** breed?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
46
In dogs with **traumatic coxofemoral luxation**, what is the most common **direction of displacement** of the femoral head?
Craniodorsal displacement of the femoral head
47
With **splenectomy** alone, expected median **survival times** for dogs with splenic **hemangiosarcoma** is:
* A. 19-86 days
* B. 103-155 days
* C. 297-392 days
A. 19-86 days
48
Which **four** pathological conditions are associated with **canine elbow dysplasia**?
1. Fragmented medial coronoid
2. Ununited anconeal process
3. Osteochondrosis
4. Elbow incongruity
49
Your patient is a two-year-old male castrated German shepherd with a chief complaint of regurgitation; the acetylcholine receptor antibody test is strongly positive.
**What is the diagnosis?**
Myasthenia gravis causing megaesophagus
50
A pale, icteric dog has hemoglobinuria and hemoglobinemia. An echocardiogram reveals a mass of worms in the tricuspid valve.
**Which syndrome does this dog have?**
Caval syndrome
| (class 4 heartworm disease)
51
What is the most common **etiology** of canine **hypothyroidism**?
Primary hypothyroidism (destruction of the thyroid gland itself) by lymphocytic thyroiditis or idiopathic thyroid atrophy
## Footnote
Secondary (due to a pituitary lesion) and tertiary (due to a hypothalamic lesion) are very rare.
52
What is the most common **etiology** of canine **hyperadrenocorticism**?
Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism
## Footnote
Characterized by an overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) in the pituitary gland and resultant oversecretion of adrenocortical hormones.
53
Name the **respiratory deformity** of older, small and miniature-breed dogs that is classically characterized by a **"goose-honk" type cough**.
Collapsing trachea
54
Which **type of urolith** is most likely to be found in a dog with a **portosystemic shunt**?
Ammonium urate urolith
55
During which **phase** of the **estrous cycle** does **pyometra** usually occur in dogs?
Diestrus
56
Examination of an older male intact dog has discovered symmetrical nonpainful prostatomegaly on rectal examination.
**What is the top differential diagnosis for this incidental finding?**
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
| (the most common prostatic disorder in intact male dogs)
## Footnote
Results from androgenic stimulation or hormonal imbalance.
57
Ingestion of **garlic** or **onions** by dogs produces which **hematologic disorder**?
Heinz body hemolytic anemia
## Footnote
This is dose-dependent, and toxicity persists even if the onions/garlic are cooked or dried.
58
Which **testicular tumor** of dogs is known to produce **estrogen**?
Sertoli cell tumor
| (causing feminizing syndrome)
59
Why should a pregnant bitch's **diet** not be supplemented with **calcium**?
Excessive intake of calcium during pregnancy may predispose the bitch to puerperal tetany (eclampsia) during lactation
60
Which type of **tumor** should be suspected in a dog with **unilateral thoracic limb lameness** and **ipsilateral Horner syndrome**?
Nerve sheath tumor
## Footnote
T1 or T2 nerve roots are affected; deep palpation cranial to the first rib may elicit a pain response.
61
Which **endocrine abnormality** is known to cause **cataract** formation in the dog?
Diabetes mellitus
62
The **Cavalier King Charles spaniel** breed of dog is predisposed to which **cardiac** disease?
Chronic degenerative atrioventricular valve disease
## Footnote
This is also called endocardiosis or myxomatous valvular degeneration.
63
A dog presents with a head tilt to the left, vertical nystagmus, ataxia, absent left-sided facial sensation, and poor proprioception of the left fore- and hindlimbs.
**What is the anatomic localization of the neurological lesion?**
Left-sided central vestibular system
## Footnote
Includes the medulla, cerebellar peduncles, cerebellum, or some combination thereof.
64
A Basenji dog with a history of polyuria and polydipsia presents for glucosuria on urinalysis in the face of a normal blood glucose.
**What is the top differential diagnosis?**
Fanconi syndrome
## Footnote
This is an inherited proximal tubular defect that most commonly occurs in this breed.
65
**Panosteitis** is a disease of dogs of **which age** group?
* A. Neonatal
* B. Juvenile
* C. Middle-aged adult
* D. Geriatric
* E. No age predilection
B. Juvenile
## Footnote
Generally resolves as animal reaches skeletal maturity.
66
In growing dogs, the **anconeal process** should be **fused** to the olecranon within what **time frame**?
By 150 days of age
| (or approximately 5 months)
67
Which **algae species** found in soil, sewage, and tree slime flux causes **large bowel diarrhea, CNS signs, and ocular manifestations** in dogs?
*Prototheca* spp.
68
What is the typical **signalment** of dogs affected by **fibrocartilagenous embolism** (FCE)?
* Adult
* Large and giant breed
* Non-chondrodystrophic breeds
69
What is the most commonly described **paraneoplastic syndrome** related to **thymomas** in dogs?
Myasthenia gravis
| (including megaesophagus)
70
What is the most **common cause** for **hypercholesterolemia** and no other complete blood count/serum biochemistry abnormalities in an adult, **fasted** dog?
Hypothyroidism
71
Infection with which **tick-borne parasite** causes **cyclic thrombocytopenia** in dogs?
*Anaplasma platys*
| (formerly *Ehrlichia platys*)
## Footnote
Transmitted by the brown dog tick (*Rhipicephalus sanguineus*).
72
Why is it useful to determine the **immunophenotype** (T cell or B cell) of canine **lymphoma**?
Because dogs with T cell (CD3 immunoreactive) lymphoma have been reported to have shorter remission and survival durations
## Footnote
Memory aid: "B is bad, T is terrible".
73
What is the most common cause of **hypercalcemia of malignancy** in the dog?
Lymphoma
| (the most common anatomic site is cranial mediastinum)
## Footnote
Other malignancies that can cause hypercalcemia in dogs are leukemia, multiple myeloma, thymoma, anal sac adenocarcinoma, and parathyroid tumors.
74
In dogs affected with **Chagas' disease** (American trypanosomiasis), which **organ** is characteristically the site of the most life-threatening lesions?
The heart
## Footnote
Initially, myocarditis can occur, but in most chronic cases, a dilated cardiomyopathy-like syndrome eventually emerges and it is often very difficult to treat.
75
What is the protocol for **leptospirosis vaccination** for dogs living in **endemic** areas?
Initially during puppyhood: three vaccinations three to four weeks apart, then at least every six months
## Footnote
*Leptospira* titers are present for only three to six months after vaccination.
76
Which **body system** is mainly affected in cases of **metronidazole toxicosis** in dogs?
Central nervous system
77
A 10-month-old mixed breed dog presents with exercise intolerance and differential cyanosis. **What is your top differential diagnosis?**
Reversed (right-to-left shunting) patent ductus arteriosus
| (PDA)
## Footnote
It is the only malformation that produces cyanosis in the caudal half of the body with normal, pink mucous membranes of the head (i.e., differential cyanosis).
78
Which **nontraumatic** disease is the most common cause for **petechiae** and **ecchymoses** in the adult dog?
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
## Footnote
Not anticoagulant toxicosis, which instead produces signs of factor deficiency: overt bleeding, bleeding into body cavities, etc.
79
What is the major **route of infection** for ***Coccidioidomycosis immitis*** in dogs and what is the name of the **infectious spore stage** of the organism?
Airborne infection; arthroconidia
## Footnote
Infection occurs via inhalation of arthroconidia from dry desert topsoil.
80
Name **three** disorders that cause **insulin resistance** in the dog.
* Hyperadrenocorticism
* Hypothyroidism
* Diestrus
* Glucagonoma
* Pancreatitis
* Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
* Congestive heart failure
* Infection
81
What is the main **physical examination finding** in dogs with **trigeminal neuritis**?
Bilateral paralysis of the masticatory muscles, causing dropped jaw or inability to close the jaw
82
Although not pathognomonic, **myoclonus** is a movement disorder most commonly associated with which specific **CNS infection** in dogs?
Canine distemper virus infection
83
Which dog **breeds** are predisposed to development of **exocrine pancreatic insufficiency**?
* German shepherd dog
* Rough-coated collie
* Cavalier King Charles spaniel
* Chow chow
84
A dog owner forgets to give heartworm preventive for four months. **What is the best management option?**
* A. Restart preventive and check an antigen (Ag) test next year
* B. Administer doxycycline for the next three months, then check an Ag test
* C. Give an adulticide now and two doses 24 hours apart in one month
A. Restart preventive now and check an antigen (Ag) test next year
85
In canine **traumatic elbow luxation**, the radius and ulna usually luxate in **which direction** in reference to the humerus?
Laterally
86
Every January for the past three years, an eight-year-old Boxer in Minnesota has developed bilaterally symmetrical hair loss over the caudal lateral thorax and abdomen; histologic abnormalities include truncated, keratin-filled primary and secondary hair follicles.
**What is the diagnosis?**
Canine recurrent flank alopecia
## Footnote
The seasonal occurrence in winter and higher prevalence north of the 45th parallel suggest that photoperiod plays a role in this disorder.
87
In dogs with whipworm infections (*Trichuris vulpis*), fenbendazole should be given once daily for three days immediately, then again in two to three weeks, then again in three months.
**What are the two parts of the whipworm life cycle that explain the need for the retreatments?**
1. The time between hatching of ova and embedding of larvae in small intestine (one week)
2. The long prepatent period (70-107 days before ova are shed in feces, allowing re-exposure)
88
A 14-year-old male castrated golden retriever dog has acute-onset, idiopathic vestibular disease. **Which of the following signs is least likely**?
* A. Circling
* B. Head tilt towards the side of the lesion
* C. Vertical nystagmus
C. Vertical nystagmus
## Footnote
Because it occurs only with central vestibular diseases (whereas idiopathic vestibular disease is a perpheral vestibular disorder).
89
Approximately what proportion of canine **mammary tumors** are **benign**?
Approximately 50%
90
A three-year-old Maltese dog presents because the owners have noticed fine, whole-body tremors for the last four months. The tremors seem to worsen with exercise and disappear during sleep.
**What is the recommended treatment?**
Immunosuppression, typically with glucocorticoids
## Footnote
The presumptive diagnosis is idiopathic tremor syndrome (a.k.a. "white shaker dog"), a glucocorticoid-responsive, presumed autoimmune disruption of conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the CNS.
91
What is the most common **skin tumor** in the dog?
Mast cell tumor
92
A one-year-old Cavalier King Charles spaniel cries out when touched around the neck. The dog performs repetitive scratching motions towards the neck using the hindlimbs, but never makes contact (i.e., "phantom scratching").
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Caudal occipital malformation/Chiari-like malformation
## Footnote
The malformed occipital bone crowds the cerebellum and impinges on the spinal cord, leading to syringomyelia and associated signs.
93
A 10-month-old West Highland white terrier presents with reported painful mastication. On examination you note masticatory muscle atrophy and irregular thickening of the mandibles.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Craniomandibular osteopathy
| (lion jaw)
94
An owner believes that his male puppy is female because urine dribbles from the perineum. On physical exam, you identify that the prepuce and penis are malformed: a full-thickness cleft exposes the urethral lumen on the entire length of the prepuce and distal penis.
**Name this malformation.**
Hypospadias
| (a.k.a. "pseudohermaphroditism")
## Footnote
Affected animals may be genetically male, female, or intersex.
95
A one-year-old Labrador retriever collapses after vigorously playing for 10 minutes. He is alert, but unable to rise. Patellar reflexes are absent and pain and withrawal reflexes are intact. After 15 minutes, the dog recovers completely.
**What is the most likely breed-associated diagnosis?**
Exercise-induced collapse in Labrador retrievers
| (myasthenia gravis is another differential diagnosis)
## Footnote
There is no specific treatment other than restricting activity to prevent future collapse episodes, and the disease is non-progressive.
96
Canine **histiocytic sarcoma** is an aggressive neoplasm of which **cell line**?
Macrophage
| (or antigen-presenting dendritic cell)
97
Which percentage of dogs with a **ruptured cranial cruciate ligament** in one stifle are likely to rupture the **contralateral** cranial cruciate ligament?
* A. 10-30%
* B. 40-60%
* C. 70-90%
* D. 100%
B. 40-60%
98
In which **breed** of dog are both **cervical spondylomyelopathy** ("wobbler syndrome") and **von Willebrand** disease overrepresented?
Doberman pinschers
99
What is the **most common** lesion in dogs that causes marked **unilateral atrophy** of the **muscles of mastication**?
Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor of the trigeminal nerve
## Footnote
Masticatory myositis is usually a bilateral process.
100
A Brittany spaniel "came up lame" on her left forelimb approximately one month ago, seemed fine for a while, but now stands with the elbow rotated medially. You note a decreased range of motion in the shoulder.
**What is the diagnosis?**
Infraspinatus contracture
## Footnote
Injury to the infraspinatus muscle can lead to fibrosis and muscle shortening.
Patients typically will return to a normal gait after surgical removal of the fibrous portion of the muscle.
101
A dog is bitten by a coral snake and is treated promptly by your colleague with several doses of crotalid polyvalent antivenom.
**What are three major disadvantages of this approach?**
1. Ineffective (coral snakes are elapids, not crotalids)
2. Costly (antivenin costs several hundred dollars per dose)
3. Needless risk of hypersensitivity
102
Boxer dogs commonly develop superficial corneal ulcers characterized by delayed healing, with a loose rim of epithelium at the ulcer margin.
**What is the name for this class of ulceration?**
Indolent ulcer, or spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect
| (SCCED)
103
Why might a dog with **heartworm disease**, but no tick-borne diseases, potentially need to be treated with **doxycycline**?
*Wolbachia* spp. infection
## Footnote
These bacteria live inside adult heartworms, and elimination of the bacteria may compromise the worms (e.g., sterilize or kill *Wolbachia*-bearing heartworms).
104
What is the advantage of **serial monitoring** of serum **progesterone**, rather than luteinizing hormone (LH), for identifying the **optimal time to breed** a bitch?
Serum progesterone levels rise gradually and continually, allowing blood samples and measurements to be made every two to three days
## Footnote
LH, on the other hand, only brieffly spikes, requiring daily measurement.
105
What is the **prognosis** for dogs with **trigeminal neuritis**?
* A. Good, most cases self-resolve
* B. Guarded, secondary complications are common
* C. Poor, most cases do not recover
A. Good - most cases self-resolve
## Footnote
Most recover spontaneously in about three weeks. Bilaterally affected dogs must be fed and watered by hand for the first seven to 10 days.
Treatment with corticosteroids is unnecessary as it has not been shown to influence the rate of recovery.
106
Name **three** **surgical treatment options** for dogs with **ruptured cranial cruciate ligaments**.
* Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy
* Tibial tuberosity anteriorization
* Fibular head transposition
* Lateral imbrication suture
* Triple tibial osteotomy
* Intraarticular fascia lata or patellar tendon autogenous graft
* Extracapsular suture
107
What is the most **common cause** of **pericardial effusion** in dogs?
Neoplasia
## Footnote
Right atrial haemangiosarcoma accounts for ~60–75% of neoplastic cases.
108
What is the most common **malignant bladder tumor** in dogs?
Transitional cell carcinoma
| (TCC)
## Footnote
TCC accounts for ~1–2% of all canine cancers and 50–75% of canine urinary bladder tumors.
109
Which **muscles** of the pelvic diaphragm are most commonly involved in **perineal hernias** in dogs?
* Internal obturator
* External anal sphincter
* Levator ani
110
A six-year-old male castrated Pomeranian has patchy hair loss with hyperpigmentation of alopecic areas and no pruritus. Skin biopsy reveals excessive trichilemmal keratinization (a.k.a. "flame follicles").
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Alopecia X
## Footnote
Alopecia X is an idiopathic (likely endocrine) disorder of adult dogs that is mainly of cosmetic, not medical, importance.
111
A four-month-old female puppy presents with ataxia and repetitive jerking motions of the head. Two weeks ago, she had a cough and ocular discharge that another veterinarian diagnosed as "kennel cough" on physical exam.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Canine distemper
112
Which is true about **interdog aggression** in households?
* A. Owners can identify who is the aggressor and who is the victim in <25% of cases
* B. Owners report improvement with treatment in a majority of cases
* C. When two dogs fight, they are usually of different sexes
B. Owners report improvement with treatment in a majority of cases
## Footnote
* 69% of owners report overall improvement with treatment
* 71% of owners can identify aggressor and victim
* 79% of cases involve same-sex pairs
113
Which of the following methods **identifies pregnancy earliest** in the bitch?
* A. Abdominal radiography (mineralization of fetal skeleton)
* B. Abdominal ultrasonography
* C. Careful abdominal palpation
* D. Serum relaxin assay
B. Abdominal ultrasonography
## Footnote
Embryonic vesicles are visible sonographically at 20 days (after LH peak), vesicles are palpable at 25 days, serum relaxin levels (produced by placenta) are elevated at 30 days, and bone mineralization is apparent at 45 days.
114
Normal **hearing** of environmental sounds in puppies usually **develops** by:
* A. 2 - 3 weeks
* B. 4 - 5 weeks
* C. 6 - 7 weeks
* D. 8 - 9 weeks
B. 4 - 5 weeks
115
A dog that has been receiving topical medication for otitis externa daily for two months is now showing signs of hyperadrenocorticism.
**What medication is the dog most likely receiving that caused this?**
Glucocorticoids
## Footnote
Long term glucocorticoids can cause iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism.
116
Dogs with **hyperadrenocorticism** are prone to several **cutaneous lesions** or manifestations. List **four** of them.
In order of frequency, from most common to least:
1. Alopecia (typically bilaterally symmetric)
2. Comedones
3. Hyperpigmentation
4. Calcinosis cutis
## Footnote
Failure to regrow shaved hair, increased susceptibility to bruising/ecchymoses, pyoderma, and abnormal cornification ("seborrhea") are also overrepresented in dogs with hyperadrenocorticism.
117
A five-year-old female spayed German shepherd presents with epiphora, temporal corneal neovascularization, and corneal pigmentation.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Chronic superficial keratitis
| (pannus)
118
**Primary hyperlipidemia** is prevalent in which **breed** of dog?
The miniature schnauzer
## Footnote
Most commonly hypertriglyceridemia +/- concurrent hypercholesterolemia and chylomicronemia.
119
A puppy has a protozoal infection that has caused ascending hindlimb paralysis, polyradiculoneuritis, and granulomatous polymyositis. Acute and convalescent *Toxoplasma* titers are negative.
**What is the most likely etiology?**
*Neospora caninum*
## Footnote
Support the diagnosis with serology for *N. caninum* or histopathology of affected tissues.
120
What is the **diagnostic test** of choice for **leptospirosis** in dogs?
Microscopic agglutination test
| (MAT, a quantitative antibody titer)
## Footnote
Best to evaluate acute and convalescent MAT with a PCR assay on blood (early) or urine (later).
121
Name two **erythrocyte features** that are **normal in Akitas** but are not found in most other dog breeds.
* Microcytosis (or low mean corpuscular volume)
* High intracellular potassium
## Footnote
Thus, in this breed, *in vitro* hemolysis can cause marked (but artifactual) hyperkalemia.
122
Tortuous pulmonary arteries, right ventricular enlargement, and a main pulmonary artery bulge are **radiographically suggestive** of which **infectious disease** of dogs?
Heartworm disease
## Footnote
These radiographic changes correspond to moderate to severe (Class II–III) heartworm disease in dogs according to the American Heartworm Society guidelines.
123
In the canine hemogram, which changes constitute a **stress leukogram**?
* Neutrophilia (without a left shift)
* Lymphopenia
* Eosinopenia
* Monocytosis
124
What is the most common **serum biochemical abnormality** in dogs with primary hypothyroidism?
Fasting hypercholesterolemia
125
Which structure, producing the "**sail sign**," might be seen cranial to the heart on a **ventrodorsal thoracic radiograph** of a **young** dog?
The thymus
## Footnote
After about one year of age, the canine thymus generally regresses (replaced by adipose tissue) and is no longer visible on radiographs, though residual thymic tissue may persist in some adults.
126
Which type of **urinary crystal** is observed in Dalmations?
Ammonium biurate crystals
127
A puppy with respiratory signs, conjunctivitis, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea is suspected to have distemper.
**What is the diagnostic test of choice?**
Indirect fluorescent antibody testing of conjunctival swabs or white blood cells from circulating blood, or blood smears for virus isolation
128
Which characteristic finding is seen in a fresh saline preparation of whole blood from a dog with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, and what is its major differential diagnosis (microscopically)?
* Characteristic finding: In-saline autoagglutination (aggregates of erythrocytes)
* Major differential diagnosis: Rouleaux formation (roll-of-coins appearance)
129
In a dog, what are **parameters** that allow you to determine whether the **diameter** of the **small intestine** is **enlarged** on a radiograph?
The normal diameter of the jejunum should not:
* exceed twice the width of a rib —AND—
* exceed the height of the central part of the vertebral body of L2
130
Which **bacterium** is most commonly isolated in **uncomplicated canine infectious tracheobronchitis**?
*Bordetella bronchiseptica*
| (*Mycoplasma* spp. is also acceptable, though rarely cultured)
## Footnote
Several other bacterial species may be involved later as secondary opportunists.
131
Which group of dog **breeds** has **higher hematocrit** values than the established reference ranges for other breeds?
Sight hounds
## Footnote
Greyhounds, Afghan hounds, etc.
132
Which two **abnormal erythrocyte morphologies** are associated with canine **splenic hemangiosarcoma**?
* Schistocytes
* Acanthocytes
133
Which **percentage** of dogs with **appendicular osteosarcoma** have **pulmonary metastasis** visible on thoracic radiographs at the time of diagnosis?
< 10%
134
Which **serum liver enzyme** may be **increased** due to normal **bone growth** or exposure to **corticosteroids** in dogs?
Alkaline phosphatase
135
After approximately how many **days** would you expect to see signs of **regeneration** following **acute blood loss** in a dog?
Three to five days after onset of hemorrhage
| (reach maximum regeneration at approximately seven days)
136
Adequate **renal concentrating ability** is presumed to exist if the **urine specific gravity** is greater than which value in dogs?
1.030
137
The **canine parvovirus ELISA** test will detect which **feline virus**?
Feline panleukopenia virus
## Footnote
Both are non-enveloped single-stranded DNA viruses in the Parvoviridae family.
138
On a **lateral thoracic radiograph** of a dog, how do you objectively determine if the **cranial lobar pulmonary vessels** are **enlarged**?
They should be the same size as each other and no larger than the proximal portion of the 4th rib
139
25-40% of dogs with **multiple myeloma** will excrete which substance in the **urine** that is normally absent in the urine of healthy dogs?
Bence-Jones proteins
140
If you decide to take a horizontal beam ventrodorsal projection of a dog's abdomen, to try to rule out **free peritoneal gas**, should the patient be placed in **left or right lateral recumbency**?
Left lateral recumbency
| (then the pylorus is on the non-dependent side)
## Footnote
If the patient is in right lateral recumbency for this procedure, gas may fill the fundus and obscure a small amount of free peritoneal gas.
141
On an **unlabeled lateral thoracic radiograph** of a dog, how can you determine if it is a **right or left** lateral projection?
On a right lateral, the caudal vena caval border blends with the more cranially located right crus of the diaphragm
142
What are the expected **serum vitamin B12 and folate abnormalities** in a dog with **small intestinal bacterial overgrowth**/"antibiotic-responsive diarrhea"/intestinal dysbiosis?
Low serum B12; High folate
| (because bacteria bind B12 and furnish folate)
143
An active, roaming dog develops acute liver failure six hours after swimming in stagnant water.
**What is the likely cause?**
Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) toxicosis
144
A dog with pulmonary lesions also has extensive periosteal reaction and proliferation of both humeri.
**What is this condition called?**
Hypertrophic osteopathy
## Footnote
Formerly called hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, or Marie's disease.
145
Which **two classes of drugs** most commonly account for **diffuse splenic enlargement** in dogs?
* Phenothiazines
* Barbiturates
146
Name two **tick genera** that transmit ***Babesia* spp.** to dogs.
* *Rhipicephalus*
* *Haemaphysalis*
* *Dermacentor*
147
**Portosystemic shunts** in dogs can be associated with which **change in erythrocytes**?
* A. Heinz bodies
* B. Basophilic stippling
* C. Microcytosis
C. Microcytosis
148
In dogs, ***Pseudomonas aeruginosa*** is most commonly associated with which **three conditions**?
1. Otitis externa
2. Lower urinary tract disease
3. Pyoderma
## Footnote
It thrives in moist, warm environments.
149
In dogs, this **superficial, burrowing skin mite** causes a nonseasonal intense **pruritus** initially around less-haired skin, such as the hocks, elbows, and pinnal margins.
*Sarcoptes scabiei*
| (sarcoptic mange)
150
Canine localized **demodicosis** most often produces lesions localized to **which areas **of the body?
Face and/or forelimbs
151
**Zinc-responsive dermatosis** is a zinc deficiency-induced disorder of keratinization common in this type of **dog breed**.
Northern breeds
## Footnote
e.g., Siberian husky, Samoyed, and Alaskan Malamute
152
Which **bacterium** is most commonly implicated in cases of **pyoderma** in the dog?
*Staphylococcus pseudintermedius*
| (formerly called *Staphylococcus intermedius*)
## Footnote
Remember: *S. pseudintermedius* = the Staph most asssociated with methicillin‑resistant infections (MRSP) in dogs/cats/horses.
153
Which **organism** is the most common cause of **fungal nasal infections** in dogs?
*Aspergillus fumigatus*
| (a ubiquitous environmental mold)
154
Dogs are the main domestic **reservoir** for which **zoonotic agent** transmitted by a **sand fly vector**?
*Leishmania infantum*
## Footnote
Causative agent of visceral leishmaniasis.
155
What is the most common **physical exam abnormality** on initial presentation of a dog with **lymphoma**?
Multicentric lymphadenopathy (stage III)
156
In dogs, *Staphylococcus* spp. and *Proteus* spp. **urinary tract infections** favor the **development** of which type of **urolith**?
Struvite uroliths
## Footnote
These bacteria create an alkaline urine (e.g., via production of urease), favoring struvite formation.
157
**Litter sizes** of **large breed dogs** tend to be: larger, smaller, or roughly the same as small breed dogs?
Larger
## Footnote
Small breeds typically have one to four pups/litter, vs. an average of eight to 12 pups/litter in large breeds.
158
Which type of **nut** can cause **neurologic signs** such as whole body tremors when it is ingested by dogs?
The macadamia nut
## Footnote
Also causes hyperthermia, vomiting, and weakness.
Clinical signs are usually mild and self-limiting, resolving without treatment.
159
What is the **permanent dental formula** for the dog?
2 x (I 3/3; C 1/1; P 4/4; M 2/3) = 42 teeth
160
What is the normal **life span** of the canine **red blood cell**?
100-120 days
161
The entire length of the **canine esophagus** contains **which type of muscle**: smooth or striated?
Striated
## Footnote
Thus, promotility drugs (which act on smooth muscle) are expected to have minimal or no beneficial effect on esophageal motility in canine megaesophagus cases.
162
# True or False:
In the dog, the left lung is divided into four lobes and the right lung into two lobes.
False
## Footnote
The right canine lung is divided into four lobes: cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory. The left canine lung is divided into two lobes: cranial and caudal.
163
A dog with acute renal failure has a positive serum titer for *Leptospira interrogans*, serovar Hardjo. The dog was vaccinated two months earlier.
**Is this titer related to vaccination?**
No
## Footnote
Vaccines protect against serovars Icterohaemorrhagiae and Canicola (conventional) or, additionally, also Pomona and Gryppotyphosa (newer vaccines). No vaccine protects against hardjo, autumnalis, bratislava, or others.
164
In a dog with **brachial plexus avulsion**, would you expect the **forelimb reflexes** to be hypereflexic, hyporeflexic, or normoreflexic?
Hyporeflexic
## Footnote
This injury disrupts lower motor neurons supplying the limb, thus disrupting the efferent portion of the reflex pathway.
165
Where is **transitional cell carcinoma** typically located in the canine **urinary bladder**?
The trigone
166
Which type of fracture courses through a portion of the **physis and epiphysis** in young dogs and is generally considered to be an **articular fracture**?
Salter-Harris type III
167
A dog presents with a circumscribed, hairless, partially-ulcerated lesion on the dorsal aspect of the left carpus. The owner reports that the dog is "always licking" the affected area.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Acral lick dermatitis
| (a.k.a. lick granuloma, neurodermatitis)
## Footnote
It has no known cause, but is a relatively common psychogenic dermatitis.
Boredom, or a mild sensory polyneuropathy leading to a sensation of pruritus or pain may play a role in lesion development.
Note: "acral" means "pertaining to the limb."
168
Cytology from a cutaneous draining tract in an adult hunting dog shows broad-based budding yeast forms.
**By which route was the infection acquired?**
Inhalation (blastomycosis) with subsequent hematogeous spread
## Footnote
Skin contact is a LESS prevalent route of infection.
169
A three-year-old retriever-cross dog ingested gopher bait four hours earlier. The dog presents with hematemesis, signs of intense abdominal pain, and you note a faint garlicky or dead fish odor to the dog's breath although the dog has not eaten fish or garlic.
**What is your immediate concern?**
Public health
| (due to risk of phosphine gas)
## Footnote
Zinc phosphide toxicosis liberates phosphine gas, which has a rotten fish/garlic odor and causes pulmonary toxicosis in people (hospital staff).
Move dog to well-ventilated area and use respiratory protection for caregivers.
170
Which canine **viral disease** causes sudden onset **anterior uveitis** and **corneal edema** ("blue eye")?
Infectious canine hepatitis
| (canine adenovirus-1 infection)
171
**Middle ear infection** in the cat or dog can cause which **neurologic deficit?**
Horner syndrome
172
**Soft-coated wheaten terriers** have a genetic abnormality for which **renal disease**?
Protein-losing nephropathy
173
What are **two** examples of **arrhythmias** that commonly develop in dogs with **dilated cardiomyopathy**?
* Ventricular premature complexes (VPCs)
* Ventricular tachycardia
* Sinus tachycardia
* Atrial fibrillation
* Asystole
174
What is the **best treatment** for **idiopathic vestibular disease** affecting older dogs?
Supportive care with antiemetic drugs or anxiolytics, +/- fluids
| (most cases resolve spontaneously in one to two weeks)
175
What is the safest, most definitive **treatment** for **gallbladder mucoceles** in dogs?
Surgical removal
## Footnote
Medical therapy is often ineffective but may be tried on a case-by-case basis.
176
A one-year-old great Dane has gradual, progressive ataxia and mild proprioceptive deficits in all four limbs. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Cervical vertebral malformation/malarticulation
| (a.k.a. "wobbler" syndrome)
177
A gene encodes a protein associated with multiple adverse drug reactions in dogs (especially ivermectin in herding breeds).
**What's the protein?**
The multidrug resistance (MDR)-1 gene encodes for P-glycoprotein
## Footnote
P-glycoprotein is a membrane-bound efflux transporter protein that plays a key role in pumping certain drugs and xenobiotics out of cells, thereby affecting their absorption, distribution, and elimination.
178
Which dog **breed** is most predisposed to **perianal fistulas**?
German shepherds
179
A nine-year-old golden retriever presents recumbent with white mucous membranes, tachypnea, tachycardia, and palpable abdominal effusion. The owner says, "She was fine this morning and just collapsed!" There was no exposure to toxins.
**What is your top differential diagnosis?**
Ruptured hemangiosarcoma leading to hemoperitoneum
## Footnote
Spleen is most likely site.
180
Urinary loss of **what substance** increases the risk for **thromboembolic disease** in dogs with **nephrotic syndrome**?
Antithrombin
| (ATIII)
## Footnote
ATIII normally inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
181
What is the most common type of **Salter-Harris fracture** seen in the dog?
Salter-Harris type II
| (involving the physis and metaphysis)
## Footnote
Fractures that affect the growth plate or physis are a concern because they may lead to angular limb deformities.
182
A four-year-old Dachshund is acutely unable to voluntarily move her hindlimbs. She flexes her limb but has no other response when her toe is firmly pinched.
**What information does this response provide you regarding pain sensation?**
Lack of deep pain and motor sensation
| (poor prognostic indicator)
## Footnote
This indicates that segmental reflexes are intact, but the absence of any response to a firm toe pinch suggests a loss of conscious nociception (deep pain perception. Withdrawal of the limb is only part of the flexor reflex arc, and is independent of conscious proprioception.
183
What is the appropriate **treatment** for canine juvenile cellulitis, also called "**puppy strangles**"?
Corticosteroids
| (this is an autoimmune disorder)
## Footnote
See swelling of the face and neck with pustular, crusty skin lesions, enlarged lymph nodes, fever, lethargy, and reduced appetite.
184
In which **joint** does canine osteochondritis dissecans (**OCD**) most **commonly** occur?
Shoulder
185
A 40-kg dog is presented with a transverse, mildly comminuted fracture of the tibia. Which **fracture fixation technique** provides the **least stability** to the limb?
* A. Cerclage wire
* B. External skeletal fixator
* C. Bone plate with screws
A. Cerclage wire
## Footnote
It does not provide adequate stability for transverse fractures.
186
A dog hit by a car has hindlimb paralysis and forelimb extensor hypertonia, with preserved voluntary movement and proprioception in the forelimbs.
**What is the term for this posture? Where is the lesion?**
* Schiff-Sherrington posture
* Lesion in T3-L3 spinal cord
187
What are the **three** most common **congenital heart defects** in the dog?
* Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
* Subaortic stenosis (SAS)
* Pulmonic stenosis
188
Which **nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory** medication can be used to **treat transitional cell carcinoma** of the urinary bladder in dogs?
Piroxicam
## Footnote
Other NSAIDs are useful but piroxicam is most researched.
189
What **skin tumor** in dogs causes **gastric ulcers**?
Mast cell tumor
| (the most common skin tumor in the dog)
190
Which canine **blood type** is most **antigenic**?
Dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA) 1
| (formerly DEA 1.1)
191
What is the most common cause of **natural death** in dogs with **immune-mediated hemolytic anemia**?
Thromboembolism
| (*not* anemia)
## Footnote
Owner-directed euthanasia is second most common cause of death.
192
**Lung lobe torsion** most commonly occurs in **which lobe** of large breed dogs?
Right middle lobe
## Footnote
Afghan hounds are overrepresented. Pugs (small dogs) tend torse their left cranial lung lobe.
193
**Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity** in dogs results primarily from a **low level of what**?
Hepatic glucuronyl transferase
## Footnote
Hence the usefulness of s-adenosylmethionine during treatment.
194
Which dog **breed** is most likely to develop **histiocytic sarcoma**?
Bernese mountain dog
195
What is the mechanism of **polyuria/polydipsia** in a bitch with **pyometra**?
Lipopolysaccharide from *Escherichia coli* interferes with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal tubule
## Footnote
This causes a transient nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
196
A middle-aged pointer dog is acutely paraplegic, with no history of trauma. CT myelogram shows mild spinal cord swelling from T11 to L3 without cord compression or mass effect.
**What is your treatment approach?**
* A. Anticoagulation
* B. Laminectomy
* C. Nursing care
C. Nursing care
## Footnote
The presumptive diagnosis from this information is fibrocartilaginous embolism; options (A) and (B) are contraindicated.
197
In a majority of dogs, **how long** does it take for **vessel occlusion** to occur after **ameroid constrictor** placement for an **extrahepatic portosystemic shunt**?
* A. 12-24 hours
* B. 5-7 days
* C. 25-30 days
* D. 60-90 days
C. 25-30 days
## Footnote
After one month, more than half of dogs have complete shunt occlusion; a further one-quarter of dogs have occlusion in the ensuing months, and the remainder have residual flow (partial attenuation).
198
You are presented with a dog whose face is covered with embedded **porcupine quills**. Name **three complications** to avoid regarding quill removal.
1. Inadequate analgesia/anesthesia
2. Failing to remove all quills (general anesthesia for full oral examination is essential)
3. Quill breakage (grasp gently at base and pull without twisting)
4. Delayed removal (risk of infection and worsening inflammation/pain)
199
Which is the **preferred treatment** for **obsessive-compulsive disorder** in dogs?
* A. Monitor without intervention, most cases are self-resolving
* B. Alter routines to affect cognitive load
* C. Redirect the pet's compulsive behavior
* D. The owner should re-establish dominance using vocal reprimands
C. Redirect the pet's compulsive behavior
## Footnote
Redirecting the stereotypical behavior can distract the dog and help break the cycle of repetition.
Any form of punishment (A) is deleterious; routines (B) are beneficial; and early treatment (D) is recommended for greatest likelihood of successful outcomes.
200
A 14-year-old West Highland white terrier has loud pulmonary crackles and normal heart sounds on auscultation, cyanosis with exercise, and hypertrophied abdominal musculature.
**What is the most likely diagnosis?**
Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis
## Footnote
The absence of a heart murmur and cough with chronicity of signs make pulmonary edema and chronic bronchitis less likely; the age and breed are very suggestive of pulmonary fibrosis.
201
Which **breed** of dog is conspicuously over-represented wth respect to developing **gallbladder mucocele**?
Shetland sheepdogs
| (shelties)
202
What are the **three surgical goals** of dogs with gastric dilatation/volvulus (**GDV**)?
1. Derotate stomach and allow for reperfusion
2. Inspect stomach and spleen to identify and remove damaged or necrotic tissue*
3. Perform gastropexy
## Footnote
*If spleen is torsed, do NOT de-rotate prior to splenectomy.
203
A dog's history, physical exam, and spinal radiographs suggest **diskospondylitis**. Name **four diagnostic tests** indicated to help confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
1. Complete blood count
2. Urine culture and sensitivity
3. *Brucella canis* titer
4. Blood culture and sensitivity
5. Fine-needle aspiration of the disk space for cytology and culture
6. Surgical curettage of disk space for culture and sensitivity
7. CT or MRI to evaluate for spinal cord compression
204
**Pyothorax** in **hunting** dogs most commonly is caused by which genus of **filamentous bacteria**?
*Nocardia* spp.
## Footnote
In hunting dogs, pyothorax often results from inhalation or penetrating wounds contaminated with soil, allowing *Nocardia* spp. to establish infection in the thoracic cavity.
205
Which **signs** are commonly noted in association with **toad intoxication** in the dog?
* Cardiac arrhythmias
* Neurologic signs (e.g., seizures, ataxia)
* Profuse salivation
* Brick-red mucous membranes
206
A dog has diffuse, excruciating pain of the hindlimb. The dog hit its stifle against a door 24 hours earlier. There is moderate swelling and intense pain on palpation; the swelling progresses visibly within one hour. There are no fractures.
**What is the most likely infectious agent?**
*Streptococcus canis* causing necrotizing fasciitis
| (flesh-eating disease)
## Footnote
Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and immediate radical surgery (amputation) can be lifesaving.
207
Which **infectious disease** of the canine **nasal passages and sinuses** is suggested by chronic mucopurulent nasal **discharge** and **depigmentation** of the nasal planum?
Nasal aspergillosis
| (*Aspergillus* spp. infection)
208
What are the hallmark **clinical pathologic** findings of **acute hemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome** in dogs?
Increased hematocrit (50-80%) with normal to low total protein
## Footnote
Etiology is unclear; may be associated with *Clostridium perfringens*.
209
Name **three screening tests** for **hyperadrenocorticism** in the dog.
* Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
* Urine cortisol:creatinine ratio
* Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test
## Footnote
The high-dose dexamethasone suppression test may differentiate between pituitary or adrenal dependent disease but is NOT a screening test.
210
Which form of canine **hyperadrenocorticism** is most likely if a four-hour cortisol <50% of baseline is reported on a **low-dose dexamethasone suppression test**?
Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism, because this result indicates suppression
## Footnote
Dogs with PDH escape suppression at eight hours. A primary adrenocortical tumor would be associated with [cortisol] <50% (i.e., failure to suppress at any time point).
211
Right lateral **radiographs** of a dog's abdomen show a **gas-distended stomach**. The pylorus is cranial and dorsal to the stomach.
**What is the diagnosis?**
Gastric dilatation/volvulus
| (GDV)
212
A radiograph of a six-month-old dog's elbow indicates a radiolucent defect in the humeral condyle above the medial ulnar coronoid process.
**What is the radiographic diagnosis and treatment of choice?**
Osteochondrosis
## Footnote
This is a component of elbow dysplasia, which can lead to degenerative joint disease. Surgical removal of the cartilage flap is the treatment of choice.
213
In truly **hypothyroid** dogs, serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (**TSH**) levels **remain normal** in which proportion of cases?
* A. 0%
* B. 20-40%
* C. >60%
B. 20-40%
214
A dog presentes for chronic intermittent vomiting and regurgitation. Abdominal radiographs show fluid-filled gastric dilation, with granular mineral-opacity material in the pyloric antrum.
**What is your radiographic diagnosis?**
Chronic partial obstruction of gastric outflow
215
An **anemic Dalmatian** dog is lacking the Dal gene. What **test** should you perform prior to transfusion to **reduce risk of transfusion reaction**?
A cross-match
## Footnote
You should perform a cross-match before any blood transfusion because lack of the Dal gene is associated with spontaneous adverse transfusion reactions.
216
An eight-month-old puppy receiving a raw meat-based diet shows multi-limb lameness and overall weakness. Bloodwork reveals hypocalcemia and increased alkaline phosphatase. Radiographs show widened physes, particularly at the distal ulna.
**What is your diagnosis?**
Rickets, most likely a dietary deficiency of vitamin D
## Footnote
Therapy should consist of a balanced diet with adequate and not excessive amounts of calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D.
217
On radiographs of the pes of a dog, you see near-complete lysis of the distal phalanx of the third digit, with associated soft tissue swelling.
**What are the differential diagnoses?**
* Neoplasia
* Squamous cell carcinoma
* Melanoma
* Metastatic pulmonary carcinoma
* Osteomyelitis
## Footnote
Biopsy is needed to differentiate neoplasia from infection.
218
In dogs, what is the minimum **absolute reticulocyte count** indicating anemia is **regenerative**?
> 80,000 reticulocytes/microliter indicates a regenerative response
219
What are expected **serum biochemical changes** in dogs with **xylitol toxicosis** (i.e., sugarfree gum/mint ingestion)?
* Hypoglycemia
* Increased liver values, specifically ALT and bilirubin
* Hyperphosphatemia
220
A dog presentes for acute onset vomiting, hypersalivation, tachycardia, tremors, and seizures. The owners recently "treated" their yard due to snail infestation.
**What is the likely toxin?**
Metaldehyde
221
Treatment of adult heartworm infection in dogs now involves administration of doxycycline in addition to adulticide drugs.
**Why?**
It kills *Wolbachia* spp., bacteria that live inside heartworms and without which the worms are weakened and more susceptible to adulticide drugs
## Footnote
Treating this bacteria also prevents worm reproduction and reduces inflammatory reaction thereby inceaseing the safety of adulticide treatment.
222
You are monitoring a dog under general anesthesia. Name four **physical indicators** of a **light level of anesthesia**.
* Spontaneous movement
* Reflex movement in response to surgical stimulation
* Abrupt increase in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate
* Increased mandibular muscle tone
* Presence of palpebral reflex, pupillary light reflex, or dazzle reflex
* Central eyeball position with medium sized-pupil (eyeball does not rotate when ketamine is used)
* Gag and swallow reflex present
223
What **injectable adulticide** is the treatment of choice for **heartworm disease** in dogs?
Melarsomine
| (Immiticide®)
224
Name the **two nerves** that innervate the male canine **bladder** and **prostate**.
* Hypogastric (sympathetic)
* Pelvic (parasympathetic)
## Footnote
Remember the pudendal nerve provides somatic innervation to the urethra to allow voluntary control of urination.
225
Name **two** of the most common **locations** for an **esophageal foreign body** in the dog.
* Cranial cervical region
* Thoracic inlet
* Base of heart
* Caudal esophagus cranial to esophageal hiatus
226
A dog infected with ***Spirocerca lupi*** is predisposed to weight loss, regurgitation and vomiting, rupture of the thoracic aorta, and what type of **esophageal neoplasia**?
Esophageal sarcomas
| (osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, and undifferentiated sarcoma)
227
In which **intervertebral space** would an **epidural injection** be given to provide regional anethesia for procedures performed **caudal to the umbilicus** in a dog?
Between the seventh lumbar vertebra (L7) and the first sacral vertebra (S1), called a sacrococcygeal block
228
How long does it take for **oral phenobarbital** to reach a **steady state** concentration in the serum of a dog?
10-14 days
## Footnote
Measure serum concentration 14 days after starting therapy/changing dose.
229
Which **benign dermal tumor** of epidermal Langerhans cell origin typically presents as a single solitary lesion in young dogs (less than years of age) and often **spontaneously regresses** within one to two months of presentation?
Canine cutaneous histiocytoma
230
What are **two drugs** that act on **sodium channels** and are used to manage **ventricular arrhythmias** in dogs?
1. Lidocaine
2. Procainamide
231
What **biochemical abnormality** is most likely in a dog that has **multiple myeloma**?
Hyperglobulinemia
232
Name **three** types/causes of **syncope** in dogs.
* Arrhythmias
* Pericardial effusion
* Vasovagal
* Tussive
* Pulmonary hypertension
* Congestive heart failure
* Cardiac outflow tract obstruction
* Cardiac neoplasia
* Heartworm disease
233
What is the **typical radiographic distribution** of **pulmonary edema** in **early** canine congestive heart failure?
Perihilar
234
What **pathognomonic neurologic deficit** is common with **THC toxicosis** in dogs?
Exaggerated menace response
235
A dog presents in status epilepticus and you would like to arrest the seizure with midazolam.
**What three routes of administration result in rapid seizure arrest?**
1. IV
2. Intranasal
3. Rectal
## Footnote
Intramuscular takes too long for absorption.
236
What **red blood cell morphologic change** is apparent in an **anemic dog** but not easily seen in an anemic cat?
Spherocytosis
## Footnote
Canine RBCs are large enough to see this change, whereas feline RBCs are too small to easily catch it.
237
A dog fed a **grain-free diet** presents in congestive heart failure. What type of **cardiomyopathy** is most likely? Which **amino acids** are likely deficient?
Dilated cardiomyopathy; carnitine and taurine
238
What is the preferred treatment for **auricular hematomas** in dogs?
Surgical drain, flush, and mattress suture placement
## Footnote
Drainage via centesis and steroid administration (without surgery) are successful in just 50% of cases. Must address underlying cause.
239
Why are **dogs** more predisposed to **pyometra** than cats?
Dogs spend larger percentage of the estrus cycle under influence of progesterone
## Footnote
Prolonged progesterone exposure causes endometrial proliferation and reduced uterine contractility, promoting bacterial growth and retention.
240
What are the top **two** causes of **dystocia** in dogs?
1. Uterine inertia
2. Fetal malpresentation
241
What is the most reliable way to diagnose **copper-associated hepatopathy** in dogs?
Liver biopsy with histopathologic examination
## Footnote
Special stains and copper quantification are often required as well.
242
What **biochemical test** helps diagnose **insulinomas** in dogs?
Insulin-to-glucose ratio
## Footnote
Hypoglycemia plus normal or elevated insulin level.
243
Name **two risks** of performing an **adrenalectomy** for a pheochromocytoma in a dog.
1. Increased anesthetic risk from catecholamine secretion (causing arrhythmias, blood pressure fluctuations)
2. Hemorrhage since most tumors exhibit local invasion into major vessels
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