Neurology Flashcards

Assess neurologic function and localize lesions through interpretation of clinical signs, neuroanatomy, and diagnostics. (50 cards)

1
Q

What is the medical term that describes difficulty swallowing?

A

Dysphagia

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2
Q

List four nerves or neuroanatomical structures involved in the menace response.

A
  • Retina
  • Optic nerve (II)
  • Medulla
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Cerebellum
  • Facial nerve (VII)
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3
Q

Muscle stiffness and tremor, trismus, and prolapse of the third eyelid are classic clinical findings for which neurological disease of large animals?

A

Tetanus

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4
Q

Which neurological disease of cattle is characterized by multifocal microabscesses in the brain stem?

A

Listeriosis

(Listeria monocytogenes infection)

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5
Q

In ruminants, polioencephalomalacia is most commonly due to relative deficiency in which vitamin?

A

Thiamine

(vitamin B1)

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6
Q

Which diagnostic test might produce abnormal results described as: positive sharp waves and fibrillation potentials?

A

Electromyography

(EMG)

Used for assessing patients with suspected myopathic or denervation disorders.

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7
Q

In Horner syndrome, how can a lesion be localized pharmacologically to determine if it is preganglionic or postganglionic (of the lower motor neuron portion of the pathway)?

A

Application of a dilute direct-acting sympathomimetic to both eyes

This reveals minimal pupillary dilation if the lesion is presynaptic, and marked dilation if the lesion is postganglionic.

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8
Q

Why is a CSF aspirate contraindicated in a patient with clinical signs of increased intracranial pressure?

A

Increased risk of brain herniation

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9
Q

In domestic animals, which bony landmarks do you use when performing a cervical spinal puncture for either injecting contrast medium for myelography or obtaining a cerebrospinal fluid sample?

A
  • Wings of the atlas
  • External occipital protuberance
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10
Q

Presence of a crossed extensor reflex is considered abnormal in a recumbent animal. Is it a sign of upper or lower motor neuron disease?

A

Upper motor neuron disease

When recumbent, inhibitory UMN pathways should suppress this reflex; its presence indicates loss of that inhibition. It is normal in a standing animal because weight-bearing requires coordinated extension of the opposite limb when one limb is flexed.

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11
Q

During a neurological examination, what does a normal panniculus reflex indicate?

A

Integrity of the spinal cord between the site of stimulation and the C8-T1 spinal cord segment

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12
Q

The cervical intumescence, the origin of the lower motor neurons for the thoracic limbs, contains which spinal cord segments?

A

C6-T2

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13
Q

During a neurological examination, where is a spinal lesion likely to be if there is pathologically increased resistance to bladder outflow?

A

Upper motor neuron lesion cranial to the sacral spinal cord segments

(i.e., lumbar or cranial to it)

This causes increased urethral sphincter tone.

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14
Q

Upper motor neuron signs in both the thoracic and pelvic limbs localize a neurological lesion to which segments of the spinal cord?

A

C1-C5

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15
Q

The Cushing reflex/Cushing response is activated with severe increases in intracranial pressure. What is the expected change in arterial blood pressure that occurs as a result of the Cushing reflex?

A

Systemic arterial hypertension

When intracranial pressure rises markedly (e.g., injury, inflammation), this reflex helps ensure that cerebral arterial perfusion is maintained.

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16
Q

If nystagmus changes direction with head position, is the vestibular lesion most likely central or peripheral?

A

Central

(i.e., due to a brain lesion)

Nystagmus due to peripheral (middle/inner ear) lesions does not change directions with changes in head position.

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17
Q

What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and spinal cord?

A

Glutamate

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18
Q

Name three clinical signs of increased intracranial pressure.

A
  • Altered mentation
  • Circling
  • Head-pressing
  • Pacing
  • Aimless wandering
  • Cortical blindness
  • Seizures (lesions of cerebral cortex and thalamus)
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Tetraplegia
  • Absence of pupillary light reflex (midbrain)
  • Mydriasis (mesencephalon)
  • Cranial nerve dysfunction
  • Disturbance of consciousness
  • Abnormal respiration (medulla oblongata)
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19
Q

What is the function of Schwann cells?

A

Myelination of peripheral nerves

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20
Q

The menace response test assesses which cranial nerves?

A

CN II and VII

(optic and facial, respectively)

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21
Q

Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?

A

Femoral nerve

(spinal segments L4-6)

22
Q

In neurology, what is meant by the term “root signature”?

A

Lameness and pain resulting from reduced sensation in a nerve root or sensory nerve of the cervical or lumbosacral intumescence

It usually is a result of nerve compression.

23
Q

This disease causes flaccid paralysis and results from a toxin blocking the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

24
Q

How does the toxin of Clostridium tetani cause disinhibition of the extensor motor neurons?

A

Interferes with the interneuronal release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and GABA

Glycine is in the spinal cord, GABA is in the brainstem.

25
The **diaphragm** is innervated by which **pair of nerves**?
Left and right phrenic nerves
26
Cranial nerve IV, the trochlear nerve, is the motor pathway to a **single muscle only**. Which one is it?
Dorsal oblique muscle of the eye
27
The **pupillary light reflex** tests which **cranial nerves**?
CN II and III | (optic and oculomotor, respectively)
28
Which **part of the brain** is responsible for the **modification and coordination** of body **movements** so that they are fluid in nature?
The cerebellum
29
A lesion affecting the **ascending reticular activating system** in the **brainstem** would result in which **characteristic** clinical manifestation?
* Depressed mentation * Coma
30
Which **branch** of the **trigeminal nerve** (CN V) innervates the muscles of **mastication**?
Mandibular
31
In addition to causing **paralysis of the limb** and **loss of sensation** distal to the elbow, a **complete brachial plexus avulsion** typically causes two other neurological deficits. What are they?
* Ipsilateral Horner syndrome (T1-3; sympathetic nerve) * Loss of cutaneous trunci reflex (C8, T1; lateral thoracic nerve)
32
Which **disorder of globe** (eyeball) movement is seen with **central** but not peripheral **vestibular dysfunction**?
Vertical nystagmus | (horizontal and rotary nystagmus can occur in both central, peripheral) ## Footnote Another acceptable answer: nystagmus that changes in direction with change in head position.
33
Which nerve supplies **parasympathetic innervation** to the **detrusor muscle** of the urinary bladder?
The pelvic nerve ## Footnote For the urinary tract, also remember: the hypogastric nerve provides sympathetic innervation and the pudendal nerve provides somatic innervation.
34
**Failure of muscular coordination** is known as?
Ataxia
35
Assuming an intact endoneurial sheath, a transected axon will regrow at which **distance** per day?
1 mm
36
Which **structure** secretes cerebrospinal fluid (**CSF**)?
The **choroid plexuses** of the ventricles of the brain
37
Where are the **Renshaw cells** located, and what is their **function**?
* Location: ventral horns of the spinal cord * Function: inhibitory neurons that transmit inhibitory signals to surrounding motor neurons
38
Which **three vessels** are part of the **circle of Willis**? ## Footnote Also called arterial circle of the brain.
* Right internal carotid artery * Left internal carotid artery * Basilar artery ## Footnote These vessels form an elongated arterial ring on the ventral surface of the brain.
39
In peripheral vestibular disease, is the fast phase of nystagmus directed **away from** or **toward the side** of the lesion?
Away | (remember: nystagmus "runs *away*" from the lesion)
40
The most common clinical signs in dogs and cats with **portosystemic shunts** reflect **dysfunction** of which body system secondary to poor **liver** function?
Central nervous system | (dullness, seizures)
41
What is the **difference** between Hansen type I and type II **intervertebral disk disease**?
* Hansen type I: acute extrusion of nucleus pulposus into vertebral canal * Hansen type II: slow chronic protrusion of annulus fibrosus into vertebral canal
42
What are the top **three differential diagnoses** for a dog or cat with **acute pelvic limb paraplegia** and no history of trauma?
* Intervertebral disk disease * Fibrocartilaginous embolism * Neoplasia ## Footnote A tumor can be slowly compressive without causing clinical signs until vascular autoregulation is suddenly overwhelmed followed by rapid progression to paraplegia.
43
Which **nerve** supplies sympathetic innervation to the bladder?
The hypogastric nerve | (also to the internal urethral sphincter) ## Footnote For urinary control, also remember: the pudendal nerve provides somatic innervation to the external urethral sphincter, and the pelvic nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the urinary bladder.
44
When observing for symmetry of **facial expression**, you are mainly assessing the status of which **cranial nerve**?
Facial nerve | (CN VII)
45
What is **myelomalacia**? Name a commonly seen condition in **dogs** that **causes** it.
* Definition: softening of the spinal cord; * Condition: in dogs, most often seen with intervertebral disk disease ## Footnote Causes flaccid, ascending paraplegia, areflexia, loss of deep pain, and, in worst cases, respiratory paralysis.
46
Cervical vertebral compressive myelopathy (CVCM, a.k.a. "wobbler syndrome") in **horses** has multiple **risk factors/causes**. Name **two**.
* Malformation of the vertebral column * Osteochondrosis in cervical articular process joints * Repetitive microtrauma to the cervical vertebrae * Dietary factors * Male sex * Certain breed predispositions ## Footnote Abnormal vertebral growth, trauma, and nutritional imbalances combine to cause cervical spinal compression. Dietary factors: e.g., copper deficiency, excessive zinc, high‑carbohydrate ration
47
How does the pathogenesis of **equine protozoal myeloencephalitis** (EPM) lead to the classic clinical signs seen in horses?
* Sporocysts of *Sarcocystis neurona* (or, rarely, *Neospora hughesii*) are ingested, spread via the bloodstream, and invade neural tissue in the brain and spinal cord * This causes multifocal, asymmetric lesions that disrupt motor and sensory pathways ## Footnote Multifocal asymmetrical CNS lesions result in the hallmark asymmetric ataxia, weakness, and muscle atrophy characteristic of EPM.
48
A dairy cow housed indoors during the winter develops acute depression, unilateral facial paralysis (drooped ear and lip), continuous salivation, and recumbency consistent with listeriosis. **What is the pathogenesis of this disease?**
Ascending infection by *Listeria monocytogenes* of the brain stem via the trigeminal nerve leads to localized meningoencephalitis ## Footnote The bacterium typically enters via oral mucosal abrasions from contaminated feed (e.g., spoiled silage).
49
What is the **causative agent** of classical bovine spongiform encephalopathy (**BSE**) in cattle, and how is it primarily **transmitted**?
* Cause: an abnormal prion protein (PrPSc) * Transmission: primarily through ingestion of feed contaminated with infected animal-source protein (meat-and-bone meal) ## Footnote The misfolded prions initiate a fatal neurodegenerative process.
50
**Spastic paresis** is an inherited condition of **cattle** that causes spastic contraction of the gastrocnemius or quadriceps muscles. Which is the **typical clinical presentation**? * A. Abduction of the forelimbs * B. Hyperextension of the hind limbs * C. Trembling of the forelimbs only * D. Flexion of the hind limbs
B. Hyperextension of the hind limbs | (one or both hind limbs)