BCSE > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

Apply principles of pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and drug safety to select and administer appropriate therapies. (76 cards)

Study These Flashcards
1
Q

What is the most common complication of treating heartworm disease using melarsomine dihydrochloride?

A

Pulmonary thromboembolism

Sterile abscess formation and pain at the injection site can also occur but are less common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is lidocaine ineffective when administered orally?

A

High first-pass effect

Hepatic metabolism of drug immediately when absorbed from the GI tract and transported through the portal circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In stage 3 of anesthesia (unconsciousness), which plane corresponds to surgical anesthesia?

A

Plane 2

(surgical anesthesia; plane 1 is light, plane 3 is deep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 50-kg patient requires treatment with medication that is dosed at 0.2 mg/kg. The concentration of your injectable solution is 2.5 mg/ml.

How many ml do you inject?

A

4 ml

50 kg X 0.2 mg/kg = 10 mg
then 10 mg/2.5 mg/ml = 4 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antibiotics are often used for preventing which potentially life-threatening complication in patients with acute hemorrhagic diarrhea?

A

Sepsis or septicemia

(because hemorrhage suggests compromise of gastrointestinal mucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many milliliters of a 5 mg/ml medication should be given to a 20-kg animal if the desired dose is 2 mg/kg?

A

8 ml

2 mg/kg X 20 kg = 40 mg
then divide 40 mg 5 mg/ml to get 8 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In cases of uveitis, which drug is used to control ocular pain (from iridocyclospasm) and to prevent synechiae through mydriasis?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When administering a drug to a food animal, established withdrawal times only apply if which condition is met?

A

The drug is used according to the approved labelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following antibiotics best crosses a healthy blood-brain barrier?

  • A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
  • B. Cefazolin
  • C. Chloramphenicol
  • D. Gentamicin
A

C. Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following species is most sensitive to xylazine?

  • A. Cats
  • B. Cows
  • C. Dogs
  • D. Horses
A

B. Cows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A colleague wishes to add 30 milliequivalents (mEq) of KCl to a half-full 1-L bag of 0.9% saline. The plan calls for a fluid rate of 140 ml/kg/day (twice maintenance rate). Is this rate of potassium administration safe, or is it excessive?

A

Safe

(never exceed 0.5 mEq/kg/h)

30 mEq KCl in 0.5 liter = 60 mEq/l KCl

Volume of total fluid being administered = 144 ml/kg/day, which equals 6 ml/kg/h, or 0.006 l/kg/hr.

Therefore, the amount of KCl administered is 0.006 l/kg/hr X 60 mEq/l = 0.36 mEq/kg/hr KCl, which is acceptable, but close to the maximal upper limit of potassium administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Your patient is recovering from an extensive orthopedic procedure. You provide analgesia with IV hydromorphone and IV butorphanol. You notice that the analgesia and sedation are less than what you would expect from the cumulative effects of these two drugs. Why?

A

Butorphanol is a partial opiate agonist-antagonist

By coadministering it with hydromorphone, you partially reversed the effects of the hydromorphone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pharmacologic agents used for delaying parturition are called what?

  • A. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists
  • B. Myometrolytics
  • C. Oxytocin receptor agonists
  • D. Tocolytics
A

D. Tocolytics

e.g., Terbutaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

  • A. Furosemide
  • B. Hydrochlorothiazide
  • C. Spironolactone
  • D. Torsemide
A

C. Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the function and mechanism of action (MOA) of cyclosporine?

A
  • Function: Immune suppressant
  • MOA: T-cell inhibition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the hydrophilic bile acid commonly used in the treatment of hepatobiliary disease in the dog and cat. What is the main contraindication to its use?

A
  • Ursodeoxycholic acid (also called ursodiol and decholate)
  • Contraindicated with gallbladder obstruction because it induces gallbladder contraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the intravenous drug that leads to the breakdown of microtubules, causing platelet release from megakaryocytes, and which is therefore used for treatment of immune-mediated thrombocytopenia?

A

Vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name two medical indications for using household, granulated sugar in small animal practice.

A
  1. Orally, for acute hypoglycemia (juvenile, insulinoma, etc.)
  2. Topical application for wound management
  3. As an osmotic for reducing the size of a prolapsed organ prior to manual reduction (e.g., vagina, uterus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can be used in the treatment of transitional cell carcinomas of the urinary bladder.

A
  • Piroxicam (Feldene®)
  • Meloxicam (Metacam®)

(cyclooxygenase-1 sparing NSAIDs)

They are thought to reduce the size of some carcinomas by reducing angiogenesis and increasing apoptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the primary route of elimination of digoxin in dogs and cats?

A

Renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is the use of chloramphenicol prohibited in food animals?

A

Has been associated with the development of a non-dose related aplastic anemia in people

Thus, any drug residue possibility to people is not tolerable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the reversal agent for medetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which adverse effect involving the urinary tract can the antineoplastic drug cyclophosphamide cause?

A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis

(caused by the drug metabolite acrolein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which drug can be given to reverse the effects of opioids?

A

Naloxone

Butorphanol also has mixed agonist-antagonist properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the best-recognized potential **side effect** of administering **fluoroquinolones** to growing animals?
Cartilage damage
26
**Keratoconjunctivitis sicca** (KCS) classically is an adverse effect in **dogs** caused by **antimicrobial drugs** of which type?
Sulfa drugs ## Footnote e.g., trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
27
Which **drug** may be used for treatment of such **diverse conditions** as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, vasodilatory shock, von Willebrand disease, and central diabetes insipidus?
Vasopressin ## Footnote Also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or by its synthetic analog, desmopressin acetate (DDAVP).
28
**Cephalexin** is a member of which **class of antibiotics**?
First-generation cephalosporin ## Footnote Commonly used for bacterial pyoderma in dogs/cats.
29
The anti-ulcer drug **omeprazole** functions by which **mechanism**?
Proton pump inhibitor ## Footnote It inactivates H+/K+ ATP-ase pump in the gastric parietal cell, thus decreasing acid secretion in the stomach.
30
A vial of lidocaine may also come with a second pharmaceutical already added that vasoconstricts. This formulation should never be given IV because the second agent may cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. **What is this second drug?**
Epinephrine
31
What is the mechanism of action (**MOA**) of **nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs**?
Inhibition of cyclooxygenase, resulting in reduced formation of prostanoid metabolites ## Footnote e.g., thromboxanes and prostaglandins
32
**Antibiotics** of which class cause **staining of the deciduous teeth** in puppies when given to the dam during pregnancy?
Tetracyclines ## Footnote Also can delay fetal skeletal development.
33
What is the mechanism of action (**MOA**) of the **bronchodilator clenbuterol**?
Beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist
34
Which **class of antibiotics** has been shown to cause deafness (**ototoxicity**) in some cases when used systemically or topically?
Aminoglycosides
35
Which effect do **angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors** have on systemic blood pressure?
Decrease it
36
Most opaque white solutions, like procaine penicillin G, should never be administered IV. What are **two opaque white solutions** that are an exception to this rule?
* Propofol * Total parenteral nutrition
37
Name at least **five** things that must appear on a **prescription label**.
* Date * Patient name * Client name * Doctor name * Hospital name and address * Drug name * Drug strength * Dosage and administration * Number of refills * Expiration date
38
Which is FALSE regarding **trilostane**? * A. It can lower serum P and increase serum Ca levels * B. It has been used for treating alopecia X in Alaskan malamutes * C. K+ concentration can increase due to suppression of aldosterone secretion * D. There is no risk of adrenal necrosis
D. There is no risk of adrenal necrosis ## Footnote Adrenal necrosis has been documented in dogs receiving trilostane.
39
What is the **post-antibiotic effect**? | (PAE)
Bacterial growth remains suppressed for a period of time after the drug concentration has decreased below the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) ## Footnote The PAE depends both on the antimicrobial and the bacterial pathogen. This is the reason gentamicin can be given once a day to domestic animals even though the elimination half life is ≤ three hours.
40
When administering IV fluids that contain supplemental KCl (and assuming the animal has normal renal function), the **rate of K+ infusion** should not exceed: * A. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr * B. 5 mEq/kg/hr * C. 50 mEq/kg/hr
A. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr ## Footnote Higher rates cause potentially fatal arrhythmias.
41
This **drug** can be given by subcutaneous injection to a female five minutes before neonates are allowed to suckle to **encourage milk letdown** following cesarean section.
Oxytocin
42
What is **glargine**?
A long-acting insulin analog | (an excellent choice for treating diabetic cats)
43
Which **two zones** of the adrenal cortex are preferentially destroyed by **mitotane**?
* Zona fasciculata * Zona reticularis
44
**Silybin** and **s-adenosylmethionine** are used for treating acute injury to which **organ system**?
Hepatobiliary
45
**Butorphanol** administered to horses, **loperamide** (Imodium-AD) administered to cats, and **acepromazine** administered to dogs, all may cause which type of **adverse effect**?
Profound excitement/central nervous system stimulation
46
**Two** of these **gastric acid-reducing drugs** also have gastrointestinal promotility effects. Which ones? * A. Cimetidine * B. Ranitidine * C. Famotidine * D. Nizatidine
B. Ranitidine D. Nizatidine
47
Which medication increases **detrusor muscle contractility**? What is its main **contraindication**?
* Medication: Bethanechol * Contraindication: Urethral obstruction
48
What would you give as an antidote to a patient with **carbamate intoxication**?
Atropine ## Footnote Carbamate inhibits acetylcholinesterase.
49
Do **small mammals** usually require **higher** or **lower** doses of **anesthetics**?
Higher, due to higher metabolic rate
50
You give your patient a subcutaneous injection of **maropitant**. What are you treating? Is this the **correct route** of administration?
* Treating: Nausea/vomiting * Route: Can be given orally or subcutaneously ## Footnote Maropitant is a centrally-acting (NK-1 antagonist) antiemetic drug.
51
Name **three** conditions that must be met for the **extralabel use of drugs** in food animals?
* Valid veterinary-client-patient relationship (VCPR) * Administered/ordered by a veterinarian * On-label treatments unavailable * For therapeutic/humane purposes only * Administration to individual animals or in water, not in feed * Identification and treatment records are adequate and maintained for 2 years * Veterinarian established extended drug withdrawal period supported by scientific evidence * Drug is adequately labeled * Drug is FDA-approved in humans or other animal spp. * Not going to be any drug residue
52
By which mechanism do **fluoroquinolones** exert their antibacterial action? Does this result in a **bacteriostatic** or **bactericidal** effect?
* Mechanism: Inhibit DNA gyrase and bacterial topoisomerase-IV * Effect: bactericidal
53
Name **three** drugs that **reduce circulating thyroid hormone** levels.
* Sulfonamides * Corticosteroids * Phenobarbital * Clomipramine * Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs * Methimazole * Tricyclic antidepressants * Furosemide * Heparin * Aspirin * Amiodarone * Propranolol * Inhalant anesthetics
54
Name **three diseases** or disorders where it may not be safe to use **non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs** (NSAIDs).
* Renal failure * Hepatic failure * Dehydration * Hypotension * Bleeding tendency * Concurrent use of other NSAIDs or corticosteroids * Gastrointestinal disease * Hemorrhage
55
You measure activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) to assess the efficacy of anticoagulation after administering a drug. **Which drug did you administer?** * A. Aspirin * B. Heparin * C. Clopidogrel * D. Warfarin
B. Heparin ## Footnote Warfarin is monitored using prothrombin time (PT), and the other two are antiplatelet drugs so no effects on PT, PTT.
56
Name **two classes of antibiotics** that have superior penetration of **prostatic** tissue.
* Fluoroquinolones (best) * Potentiated sulfas * Chloramphenicol * Doxycycline ## Footnote Clindamycin or erythromycin only if culture shows gram-positive. Choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity when available, but ideal is highly lipid soluble, basic, and not highly protein bound.
57
What is the mechanism of action (**MOA**) of **lactulose** when used to prevent/treat **hepatic encephalopathy**?
Traps ammonia in the colon, reducing it to ammonium ## Footnote Ammonium is excreted in feces rather than diffusing through colon wall and circulating systemically, where it causes encephalopathic effects. Lactulose also has an osmotic laxative effect, promoting excretion of ammonia and other nitrogenous waste.
58
There are at least four indications for the use of **antimicrobial combinations** instead of antibiotic monotherapy. Name **two**.
* Superior efficacy in serious infections * Polymicrobial infections/broad-spectrum coverage * Prevention of emergence of resistance to one drug * Lower risk of toxicity * Synergistic effect of drugs
59
Name **three** effects of **atropine**.
* Increased heart rate (tachycardia) * Dilated pupils (mydriasis) * Decreased salivation (xerostomia) * Decreased gastrointestinal motility * Decreased lacrimation * Decreased vomiting * Decreased urination * Bronchodilation ## Footnote Atropine is parasympatholytic.
60
Which of the following **antibiotics** is the only one with good penetration into the **cerebrospinal fluid**? * A. Gentamicin * B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole * C. Tetracycline * D. Penicillin
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
61
Doramectin, milbemycin, and abamectin belong to which class of **antiparasitic drugs**?
Macrocyclic lactones | (avermectins like ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin and milbemycins l ## Footnote Macrocyclic lactones open glutamate-gated chloride channels, leading to chloride influx and neuromuscular inhibition.
62
Fenbendazole is the approved treatment of choice for giardiasis in dog. What is the second-best option for **treating giardiasis** in dogs?
Metronidazole has a reported 50-60% efficacy ## Footnote However, has been associated with serious adverse CNS effects of the CNS in dogs w/ chronic treatment or high doses.
63
Name the **medication** used in the treatment of **hyperadrenocorticism** that blocks the conversion of pregnenolone to progesterone in the adrenal gland.
Trilostane ## Footnote Used in dogs (also guinea pigs, cats) to treat pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (HAC), HAC due to adrenocortical tumors, and alopecia X.
64
What are the **mechanism** and **site of action** of the **diuretic spironolactone**?
* Mechanism: Antagonizes aldosterone * Site: Late distal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron ## Footnote It is a potassium-sparing diuretic.
65
**Pimobendan** exerts its effects via which **mechanisms**?
* Calcium sensitization * Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibition ## Footnote Together these cause increased myocardial contractility (positive inotropy) and vasodilation.
66
Name **two classes of antibiotics** that act by **inhibiting cell wall synthesis**.
* Cephalosporins * Penicillins ## Footnote Cephalosporins and penicillins are both β-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis, making them bactericidal.
67
On **which part** of the kidney does **furosemide** exert its primary **diuretic** effects?
Impairs activity of the Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporter in the medullary portion of thick ascending loop of Henle
68
Name **three** pharmacologic effects of **glucocorticoids** that lead to **immunosuppression**.
1. Reduce inflammatory mediators by inhibiting prostaglandin and leukotriene synthesis via phospholipase A2 inhibition 2. Decrease interferon production 3. Diminish intracellular killing 4. Inhibit lymphocyte, neutrophil and monocyte migration 5. Inhibit lymphokines 6. Inhibit phagocytosis 7. Reduce antigen processing 8. Stabilize mast cells to decrease histamine release 9. Decrease circulating levels of T-lymphocytes (partially via inducing apoptosis)
69
A **0.5% solution** of a drug is equivalent to how many **mg/ml**?
5 mg/ml ## Footnote 0.5% is 0.5 parts per 100, or 5 parts per 1000. Since 1 ml of water contains 1000 mg (1 ml = 1 gram), then a solution with 5 parts per 1000 is a 5 mg/ml solution. It is easiest to remember to move decimal over 1 place to the right - e.g., 0.5% is 5 mg/ml or 2% is 20 mg/ml.
70
Which class of drug, used for **estrus suppression** in dogs and cats, has potential adverse effects that include: diabetes mellitus, acromegaly, and adrenocortical suppression?
Progestins ## Footnote e.g., megestrol acetate
71
What are **two medical mechanisms** to lower intraocular pressure in patients with **glaucoma**?
* Decrease aqueous humor production * Increase aqueous humor outflow ## Footnote Examples: * Decrease aqueous humor production: carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, beta blocker * Increase aqueous humor outflow: prostaglandin analog, parasympathomimetics
72
What is the **minimum number of weeks** needed for oral antibiotic treatment of **deep pyodermas**?
8 to 12 weeks, + 1 to 3 weeks beyond clinical resolution
73
Which **families of drugs** are used to manage **proteinuria** associated with **glomerular disease** in dogs?
* Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors * Angiotensin receptor blockers
74
What is the **concentration** of **glargine insulin** and therefore what type of **insulin syringes** should be used when administering glargine insulin?
* Concentration: 100 U/ml * Syringe: U-100 insulin syringes
75
What is the action of an **agonist drug**?
It binds to a receptor to produce one or more effects
76
How do **partial** agonists and **mixed** agonist-antagonists **differ**?
Partial agonists produce a milder effect, while mixed agonist–antagonists partially reverse pure agonists
BCSE
flashcards
Decks in class (22)
# Cards
Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2026 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions