1
Q
Name the tissue macrophage for each location: bone, lung, liver.
A
- Bone: osteoclast
- Lung: pulmonary alveolar macrophage
- Liver: Kupffer cells
2
Q
What is the medical term for straining to defecate?
A
Tenesmus
3
Q
Which artery in an adult animal carries de-oxygenated blood?
A
The pulmonary artery
(from the right ventricle to the lungs)
4
Q
What is the renal hormone responsible for stimulating production of red blood cells?
A
Erythropoietin
5
Q
What is the significance of pitting edema (as opposed to nonpitting)?
A
Indicates intercellular fluid excess (e.g. interstitial edema)
(Pitting is persistence of a depression when pressure applied)
Nonpitting occurs with intracellular fluid excess (e.g. wheal).
6
Q
The coagulation factors are numbered from I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?
A
Factor VI
7
Q
The total lung capacity consists of the inspiratory reserve volume, the expiratory reserve volume, the residual volume, and which fourth, essential component?
A
The tidal volume
8
Q
What are the three mechanisms by which patients become anemic?
A
- Blood loss (hemorrhagic anemia)
- Accelerated erythrocyte destruction (decreased erythrocyte life span) by intra- or extravascular hemolysis
- Reduced or defective erythropoiesis
9
Q
The “round ligament of the liver” is a remnant of which fetal structure?
A
Umbilical vein
10
Q
Which of the four compartments of the ruminant stomach is the glandular stomach?
A
Abomasum
11
Q
What is the product of heart rate and stroke volume?
A
Cardiac output
In turn, cardiac output times systemic vascular resistance determines blood pressure.
12
Q
List the four most likely mechanisms to explain arterial hypoxemia in an animal breathing room air.
A
- Ventilation/perfusion mismatching (V/Q mismatch)
- Hypoventilation
- Extrapulmonary (right-to-left) shunts
- Diffusion impairment
13
Q
What are the three cell types found in bone? What do they do?
A
- Osteoblasts: synthesis of osteoid bone matrix
- Osteocytes: develop from osteoblasts once matrix is mineralized and become part of the bone matrix
- Osteoclasts: osteolysis
14
Q
What is the behavior term given to the process whereby animals learn to adapt to novel stimuli by repeated or continuous exposure, provided they suffer no consequences from the exposure?
A
Habituation
15
Q
Azotemia associated with chronic renal disease typically is seen after a loss of which percentage of nephrons?
- A. 25%
- B. 50%
- C. 75%
A
C. 75%
16
Q
When measuring the following parameters in the same patient, which can be expected to be significantly different (e.g., >25%) in venous blood samples compared to arterial samples?
- A. PCO2
- B. PO2
- C. HCO3
- D. pH
A
B. PO2
Only PO2 is appreciably different - typically it is ~ 50% lower in venous samples compared to arterial.
17
Q
If your patient’s pH is high and the pCO2 is decreased, which is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A
Respiratory alkalosis
18
Q
If the patient’s blood pH is low and the blood HCO3- is decreased, what is the primary acid-base disturbance?
A
Metabolic acidosis
19
Q
Knowing a patient’s serum electrolyte levels, how can you calculate the anion gap?
A
(Na+ + K+) - (Cl- + HCO3-)
20
Q
What is the physiologic mechanism that causes hypokalemia in spite of normal/conserved total body potassium?
A
Movement of extracellular potassium to the intracellular space
Occurs in response to acute alkalosis or administration of insulin or glucose.
21
Q
What is the mechanism of hypercalcemia leading to low urine specific gravity?
A
Hypercalcemia interferes with the action of antidiuretic hormone and renal concentrating ability
22
Q
Does acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) increase, decrease, or not affect PaO2:FIO2?
A
Decreases it
(can be <200)
ARDS impairs gas exchange in the lungs (due to shunt, alveolar flooding, reduced ventilation–perfusion matching), lowering arterial oxygen tension (PaO₂) relative to inspired oxygen (FiO₂)
23
Q
What is the effect of alkalosis on circulating ionized and protein-bound calcium concentrations?
A
Alkalosis reduces ionized calcium by increasing calcium binding to protein
Remember that albumin is a weak (negatively charged) acid so when pH rises, fewer H⁺ ions are bound to albumin. This leaves more negatively charged sites available to bind calcium, reducing ionized calcium.
24
Q
A patient with metabolic alkalosis has serum [HCO3-] = 34 mEq/l (normal = 17-24 mEq/l). Is the expected compensatory response an increase or decrease in PCO2?
A
Increase in PCO2
By 7 mm Hg, since compensation for metabolic alkalosis = 0.7 mm Hg increase in PCO2 for every 1 mEq/l decrease in [HCO3-].
25
With **respiratory alkalosis**, which organ is responsible for the primary disturbance, and which organ is responsible for the compensatory response?
* Primary disturbance: lungs
* Compensatory response: kidneys
26
With **acidosis**, what are the expected changes in serum pH and [H+]?
* Decreased pH
* Increased serum [H+]
27
If a blood vessel's **radius doubles**, by how much will flow increase if all other parameters (pressure difference between ends of the vessel, viscosity, etc.) remain the same?
16-fold
| (Poiseuille's law)
## Footnote
Flow increases to the fourth power of the increase in radius.
28
# True or False:
In **monogastric** animals, the site of greatest **absorption of water** in the gastrointestinal tract is the large intestine/colon.
False
## Footnote
It is the jejunum. Common error: most of what the colon absorbs is water (few electrolytes or other substances), but less total volume of water than ileum or jejunum.
29
Which molecule in the blood generates the **greatest colloid oncotic pressure** and is therefore the most important in maintaining fluid balance between intravascular and interstitial spaces?
Albumin
| (≈ 80% of oncotic pull)
## Footnote
The remainder comes mostly from fibrinogen and globulins.
30
What is the main **effect** of **angiotensin II** on the peripheral arterioles?
Vasoconstriction
31
# Fill in the blank:
**Muscle contraction** occurs due to calcium release into the sarcoplasm, where calcium binds with \_\_\_\_\_\_, allowing the connection of actin to myosin.
Troponin/tropomyosin complex
| (specifically, troponin C)
32
During mammalian **embryologic** development, **T lymphocytes** originate from the bone marrow, but then proceed to which organ for **final differentiation**?
Thymus
33
Under aerobic conditions, **pyruvate** is degraded to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion. To what molecule is pyruvate converted instead (in the cytosol) under **anaerobic conditions**?
Lactate
34
Which effect does **acidosis** have on ionized calcium concentrations?
Mild increase
## Footnote
Acidosis decreases plasma-protein-binding affinity for calcium, creating a mild physiologic ionized hypercalcemia. Alkalosis has the opposite effect.
35
What are the average **erythrocyte lifespans** in circulation for the **cow** and the **horse**?
* Cow: 160 days
* Horse: 145 days
36
Where is **renin** produced?
In the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
37
What does a **V/Q mismatch of infinity** mean? In what clinical situation may this occur?
Alveoli are receiving ventilation but have no blood flow (V/Q = 1/0), as may occur with a pulmonary embolus
38
# Fill in the blanks:
\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the major **intracellular cation** and \_\_\_\_\_\_ is the major **extracellular cation**.
* Intracellular: Potassium (K+)
* Extracellular: Sodium (Na+)
39
Which component of a **blood pressure measurement** (systolic, diastolic, or mean) is the best determinant of **organ perfusion**?
Mean arterial pressure
40
What is the appropriate maximum rate of decrease in **plasma sodium levels** during the treatment of chronic (> 24 h) severe hypernatremia?
8 - 12 mEq/l/day
| (or 0.5 mEq/kg/h)
## Footnote
A more rapid rate of correction risks cerebral edema.
41
What is the effect of **hypomagnesemia** on cell membrane **threshold potential**?
Decreases threshold potential
| (which increases cellular excitability)
42
How does **severe hypophosphatemia** cause anemia?
Hemolysis due to altered red blood cell membrane deformability
| (also decreased ATP availability)
43
On what **ionic process** are oxytocin-induced **uterine contractions** dependent?
Adequate influx of extracellular calcium
44
A deficiency in these nutrients is associated with **muscle necrosis** and mineralization in calves, lambs and foals (**white muscle disease**). Name the **nutrients**.
* Vitamin E
* Selenium
45
# Fill in the blank:
Since **striated muscle** cells do not replicate, physiological **enlargement** is due to \_\_\_\_\_\_ of myocytes.
Hypertrophy
| (not hyperplasia)
46
Upon ligation of a **patent ductus arteriosus**, the aortic and carotid baroreceptors sense a rise in blood pressure, triggering the Branham reflex.
**What is the response?**
A decrease in heart rate
47
In **myocardial infarction**, the primary type of **healing** involves which cell type?
Fibroblast
48
What is the **mechanism of edema** caused by inflammation?
Endothelial damage leads to increased vascular permeability
49
**Macrophages** are derived from which **circulating blood cell**?
The monocyte
50
Total body water makes up approximately which **percentage of the total body weight** in healthy, non-obese adult animals?
60%
51
The descending loop of Henle is:
* A. Permeable to water but rather impermeable to solute
* B. Rather impermeable to water but permeable to solute
A. Permeable to water but rather impermeable to solute
52
Through which mechanism does the kidney maintain **perfusion** during **hypotension**?
Autoregulation
| (mediated by PGE2)
53
According to Stewart's theory of **strong ion difference**, is HCO3- a dependent or an independent variable?
Dependent variable
## Footnote
It does not change directly, but rather changes in response to changes in independent variables (the strong ions: e.g., sodium, chloride, potassium).
54
Name **two** of the four major physiologic mechanisms of **pulmonary edema**.
1. Increased vascular hydrostatic pressure
2. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
3. Increased vascular permeability
4. Impaired lymphatic drainage
55
What is the name of a molecule that is **too small** to be **immunogenic**, but which, when it attaches to a larger molecule, is recognized by the immune system and can thus elicit a **hypersensitivity reaction**?
A hapten
## Footnote
Examples: penicillin, poison ivy
56
Name **three** diseases associated with **metastatic calcification** of soft tissues in small animals.
* Renal secondary hyperparathyroidism
* Lymphoma
* Canine anal sac adenocarcinoma
* Hypervitaminosis D
* Destruction of bone from primary or metastatic neoplasia
* Primary hyperparathyroidism
57
Name **two** examples of **pathogen-associated molecular patterns**.
| (PAMPs)
* Lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
* Peptidoglycans
* Lipoteichoic acid
* Flagellins
* Double-stranded RNA
* Unmethylated DNA
## Footnote
These are all components of pathogens that are recognized as non-self by all mammals.
58
In the **mammalian immune system**, the **plasma cell** is derived from which cell?
B cell
| (lymphocyte)
## Footnote
Activated B cells can either become immunoglobulin-secreting plasma cells or memory cells.
59
What is the immune mechanism of **type I hypersensitivity**?
IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
| (histamine released)
60
Which are the **primary lymphoid organs**?
* Thymus and bone marrow (mammals)
* Bursa of Fabricius (birds)
61
Which of the following **cytokines** is NOT an **endogenous pyrogen**?
* A. IL-1
* B. IL-6
* C. IL-8
* D. TNFα
C. IL-8
| (also called CXCL8)
## Footnote
IL-8 is a chemokine with a major role in neutrophil chemotaxis.
62
With respect to **cellular function**, what do Kupffer cells, microglial cells, and Langerhans cells have in **common**?
They are phagocytic
## Footnote
Kupffer cells and microglial cells are macrophages (derived from monocytes) and Langerhans cells are dendritic cells.
63
Which of the following inflammatory mediators **induces vasoconstriction**?
* A. Bradykinin
* B. Nitric oxide
* C. PGE2
* D. Thromboxane A2
D. Thromboxane A2
## Footnote
All the others are vasodilators.
64
How does **metabolic acidosis** affect plasma **potassium** concentration?
Plasma potassium concentration increases in cases with metabolic acidosis
| (due to extracellular shift of potassium in exchange for protons)
## Footnote
It is important to consider that an acidotic animal with plasma potassium within the reference range may become hypokalemic once the acidosis is corrected.
65
The production of lactate as a **metabolic end-product** (from pyruvate) allows the regeneration of which molecule?
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
| (NAD+)
66
With **metabolic acidosis**, and with regards to HCO3- and PCO2, what is the primary disturbance and what is the compensatory response?
* Primary disturbance: decreased HCO3-
* Compensation is decreased PCO2
67
Changes in **extracellular fluid osmolality** cause water to shift between the intracellular and extracellular spaces. Which biochemical components are the **major contributors** to osmolality?
Electrolytes and small molecules
| (e.g., urea, glucose)
## Footnote
Large molecules (e.g., proteins) are responsible for oncotic pressure, but they contribute little to osmolality.
68
Which one of the following cyanotic disorders does not respond to **oxygen supplementation**?
* A. Pneumonia
* B. Pulmonary edema
* C. Pulmonary contusion
* D. Right-to-left cardiac shunt
* E. Pulmonary hemorrhage
D. Right-to-left cardiac shunt
## Footnote
Because hypoxic blood bypasses the lungs altogether.
69
In healthy animals, **plasma HCO3- concentration** is maintained by the conservation and production of NaHCO3 by which structure in which organ?
Renal tubules
70
When constructing a **fluid therapy plan** for a critically ill patient, which are the **three factors** that determine the total volume of fluids to be administered?
* Maintenance requirements
* Hydration status
* Ongoing losses
71
On **auscultation**, do **wheezes** most likely indicate alveolar, bronchial, or tracheal disease?
Bronchial disease
## Footnote
They are due to the narrowing of small airways.
72
# Define:
Specific gravity
The ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid to the weight of an equal volume of distilled water
## Footnote
Therefore, specific gravity depends on the molecular weight of particles as well as the number present in the solution.
73
Rapid blood loss causes **fatal hypovolemic shock** after losing approximately which **proportion** of the blood volume?
* A. 10-15%
* B. 25-30%
* C. 40-45%
* D. 55-60%
C. 40-45%
74
In the mammary gland, which cells are responsible for the **synthesis of the major milk constituents** casein, lactose, and fat?
The mammary epithelial cells
75
In an animal with 7% dehydration, low serum albumin concentration, and high-normal hematocrit, which of the following would be the best choice in addition to **isotonic crystalloid fluids**?
* A. Colloids
* B. Hypertonic saline
* C. Whole blood
A. Colloids
76
Which name is given to **electrolytes and inorganic solutes** that form in the **brain** and help prevent dehydration in the face of a chronic **hyperosmolar state**?
Idiogenic osmoles
## Footnote
They accumulate in brain cells during hyperosmolar states to increase intracellular osmolality, protecting neurons from dehydration.
77
What is the **difference** between **molality** and **molarity**?
* Molality: number of moles of solute per kg of solvent
* Molarity: number of moles of solute per liter of solution
78
What is the percentage of **total body water** in **neonates**?
75-80% of a neonatal animal's body weight is water
79
Restoring euvolemia from hypovolemia can take 24-48 hours under optimal circumstances. Name **three** causes for a **failure to achieve euvolemia** in this time period despite fluid therapy.
1. Calculation errors
2. Underestimation of deficit
3. Ongoing losses greater than estimated
4. Too-rapid infusion with consequent diuresis
5. Mechanical problem with fluid delivery*
## Footnote
*Pump failure, kinked or extravasated catheter, etc.
80
In acid-base balance, what does the **law of electroneutrality** stipulate?
The sum of all cations must equal the sum of all anions
| (in body fluids)
81
With respect to **respiratory sounds**, what is the difference between **stertor** and **stridor**?
* Stertor is a deep guttural sound caused by vibration of the nasal passage or pharynx (i.e., snoring)
* Stridor is an inspiratory stenotic whistle-like sound
## Footnote
Hear stertor, for example in horses with dorsal displacement of the soft palate. Hear stridor, for example, with decreased laryngeal diameter (e.g., laryngeal hemiplegia).
82
A patient presents with a high-pitched inspiratory **stridor** and **inspiratory dyspnea**. Is this more likely due to obstruction of the glottis or pulmonary parenchymal disease?
Obstruction of the glottis
| (or any upper airway obstruction)
## Footnote
Pulmonary parenchymal disease rarely if ever produces abnormal noise and dyspnea that are only inspiratory.
83
Other than respiration, name **one** biological **function** of the **gills of fish**.
1. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
2. Osmotic and ionic regulation
3. Acid-base regulation
84
The **operculum** of fish reared in captivity is often **deformed**. How would this affect the health of the fish?
* Respiration is impaired
* Gills are more susceptible to infection, parasitism, and physical damage
* Reduced feeding efficiency and growth
## Footnote
The operculum is the covering of the gills of a fish.
85
What effect does **aldosterone** have on the **collecting duct** of the kidney?
* Enhances sodium and water reabsorption
* Stimulates potassium and hydrogen ion secretion
86
Right heart failure affects which **zone** of the **hepatic lobule**, and with what **effect**?
Hepatic congestion and necrosis in centrilobular area (zone 3)
87
Which type of **lactic acidosis** is more common in veterinary patients? D or L? And what is the most common cause?
* L-lactic acidosis, produced by mammalian cells during anaerobic glycolysis
* Occurs with hypoperfusion, shock
88
What **percentage of the liver** must be removed for regeneration and recovery to no longer be possible?
75-80%
89
The hematocrit initially remains normal after rapid blood loss. Eventually, interstitial fluid begins to shift into the vasculature, causing dilution of the erythrocyte mass.
**How long after onset of hemorrhage does this start?**
2-3 hours
| (and continuing for 24-48 hours)
90
In the fetus, the **oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve** lies to the left of the adult curve. What does that mean?
Fetal erythrocytes have a higher affinity for oxygen
## Footnote
This allows the fetus to most efficiently extract oxygen from maternal blood.
91
In mammals, what is the percentage of **cardiac output** that the two **kidneys** receive?
Approximately 20-25%
92
The resting energy requirement (RER) is the number of calories required for maintaining homeostasis at rest in a thermoneutral environment.
**How do you calculate the RER?**
* RER = 70 × (body weight in kg)0.75
* For animals between 2 and 30 kg: RER = (30 X current body weight in kg) + 70
93
What causes **crackles** heard on auscultation of the lungs?
Crackles are fluid-filled alveoli popping open with inhalation
## Footnote
Can be caused by pulmonary edema, exudate, or fibrosis.
94
In health, how long do **neutrophils** typically **circulate**?
* A. 2 weeks
* B. < 24 hours
* C. 3 - 5 days
* D. 1 month
B. < 24 hours
| (usually 5 - 15 hours)
95
Which birds comprise the **passerines**?
* Songbirds
* Finches
* Crows
## Footnote
These are members of the order Passeriformes, the largest of all avian orders.
They have four toes - three directed forward, and one directed backward.
96
Which structure in **birds** is responsible for **B cell differentiation**?
Bursa of Fabricius
97
After what approximate period of time from the onset of anemia would you expect a **maximum erythropoietic response** from the marrow?
4 - 7 days
98
Platelets are involved in **primary or secondary hemostasis**?
Primary hemostasis
## Footnote
Platelets form the initial plug at sites of vascular injury, which is the first step in hemostasis.
99
Which coagulation factors are involved in the **common (final) pathway** of hemostasis?
* Factor X
* Factor V
* Factor II (prothrombin)
* Factor I (fibrinogen)
* Factor XIII (fibrin-stabilizing factor)
## Footnote
These factors convert prothrombin to thrombin, fibrinogen to fibrin, and stabilize the fibrin clot in the final stage of coagulation.
100
An animal ingested a **vitamin K–antagonist** rodenticide. Which coagulation test is likely to be abnormal **first**?
* A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
* B. Prothrombin time (PT)
* C. Bleeding time
* D. Thrombin time
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
## Footnote
PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways and is sensitive to early deficiencies of vitamin K–dependent factors like factor VII (kicks off the extrinsic pathway), which decreases first after rodenticide exposure.
101
What is the **major fibrinolytic enzyme** in animals?
Plasmin
## Footnote
It degrades fibrin clots by digesting the fibrin mesh, thereby effecting fibrinolysis.
Plasmin is formed from plasminogen (inactive precursor) by activators such as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and urokinase.
102
Name one of the roles of **von Willebrand factor (vWF)** in hemostasis.
1. Mediates platelet adhesion to the exposed sub‑endothelial collagen at sites of vascular injury, acting as the “glue” recruiting platelets and linking them to injured vessel walls
2. Stabilizes factor VIII in circulation, protecting it from degradation
BCSE
flashcards
Decks in class (22)
# Cards
-
Anesthesia60
-
Behavior10
-
Clinical Anatomy67
-
Cardiology64
-
Clinical Pathology98
-
Dermatology22
-
Endocrinology33
-
Imaging52
-
Microbiology54
-
Neurology50
-
Oncology18
-
Ophthalmology22
-
Parasitology52
-
Pathology20
-
Pharmacology76
-
Physiology102
-
Preventive Medicine30
-
Surgery62
-
Theriology16
-
Toxicology49
-
Urology/Renal23
-
Virology20
