Preventive Medicine Flashcards

Implement disease prevention strategies by integrating vaccination protocols, parasite control, nutrition, and population health principles. (30 cards)

1
Q

At what age is a puppy or kitten typically seen for their first veterinary visit, and what is one key procedure usually performed?

A
  • At 6–8 weeks
  • Perform a complete physical exam (especially to check for congenital defects) and administer initial vaccine(s)

Additional procedures: parasite control, husbandry, discussing vaccine schedules and normal developmental milestones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

After the initial visit, how often are puppies and kittens typically examined until around 16 weeks of age, and why?

A
  • Every 3–4 weeks
  • To provide booster vaccinations, administer antiparasitic medications if needed, and monitor the pet’s health and development

Regular visits ensure the pet receives timely vaccinations (as maternal protection wanes) and parasite control while allowing the veterinary team to address owner questions and track growth and behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False:

After their first-year boosters, adult dogs and cats only need to visit the veterinarian every 3 years because that is the frequency of boosters for core vaccines.

A

False

Even though many core vaccines are boostered every 3 years, annual veterinary visits are recommended to monitor overall health, detect problems early, assess dental health, update parasite prevention, and provide age-appropriate care and education.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name three common health conditions seen in geriatric dogs and cats that routine annual or semi-annual (every 6 months) exams may help identify.

A
  • Osteoarthritis/joint problems
  • Obesity or weight changes (gain or loss)
  • Endocrine disorders: hyperthyroidism in cats, hypothyroidism or hyperadrenocorticism in dogs, diabetes mellitus in both
  • Dental disease
  • Kidney disease
  • Heart disease
  • Cognitive dysfunction / dementia
  • Cancer

Aging pets often develop multiple health issues, so regular wellness exams and laboratory testing are important to detect and manage these conditions early.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or False:

Vaccination is an example of passive immunity.

A

False

Vaccination stimulates the animal’s own immune system to produce a response, which is active immunity; passive immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred directly, such as through colostrum or plasma transfusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give an example of passive immunity in animals.

A
  • Antibodies passed through the placenta from the dam to the fetus
  • Antibodies ingested via colostrum in newborns
  • IV infusion of antibody-rich plasma (e.g., in foals with inadequate passive transfer)

Passive immunity provides immediate but temporary protection by transferring preformed antibodies rather than stimulating the animal’s own immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What part of a vaccine enhances the immune response to the antigen?

A

Adjuvants are added to vaccines (especially noninfectious types) to strengthen or prolong the immune response without causing disease

(e.g., aluminum hydroxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name one type of infectious vaccine.

A
  • Modified live (MLV)
  • Attenuated
  • Recombinant

(e.g., MLV strangles in horses, MLV or recombinant canine distemper)

Infectious vaccines contain altered pathogens that can infect host cells to stimulate immunity, producing a stronger and longer-lasting immune response than noninfectious vaccines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False:

It is acceptable to use any sterile liquid to reconstitute a lyophilized vaccine, as long as the vaccine is used immediately.

A

False

Use the diluent provided by the manufacturer because it is specifically formulated with the correct pH and preservatives to maintain vaccine efficacy; using a different liquid can reduce efficacy or harm the animal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is it appropriate to use expired vaccines?

  • A. When they are on backorder and hard to source
  • B. When an in-date vaccine is too expensive
  • C. Never
  • D. In adult animals only
A

C. Never

Best case scenario, expired vaccines are ineffective and worst case scenario they are dangerous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are vaccines administered on the distal limb in cats?

A

To allow complete surgical removal of a vaccine-induced sarcoma if one develops (usually invasive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the core canine vaccines in North America.

A
  • Rabies
  • Distemper
  • Hepatitis (adenovirus-2)
  • Canine parvovirus (CPV)
  • Leptospirosis

Additional, risk-based vaccines to discuss with clients include: parainfluenza virus, Lyme disease, Bordetella, canine influenza, and rattlesnake toxoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the core feline vaccines in North America.

A
  • Rabies
  • FeLV (for cats < 1 year)
  • FHV-1
  • FCV
  • FPV

Optional vaccines for cats include FeLV (for cats > 1 year), Chlamydia felis, and Bordetella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List two signs of an allergic reaction to a vaccine in a pet.

A
  • Facial swelling
  • Difficulty breathing

Other concerning signs include vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria/hives, and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are two signs of anaphylaxis due to vaccination?

A
  • Cardiovascular collapse
  • Respiratory arrest

(other signs: facial swelling, hives, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria)

Severe anaphylaxis can rapidly progress to death without immediate treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name two examples of delayed adverse reactions that may occur days to weeks after vaccination.

A
  • Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
  • Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

Others: immunosuppression, immune-mediated polyarthritis, immune-mediated meningitis, hypertrophic osteodystrophy, and thyroiditis.

17
Q

Where should adverse vaccine reactions in animals be reported?

  • A. The local animal shelter
  • B. Vaccine manufacturer and regulatory authority
  • C. Nowhere; reporting is unnecessary but do record it in the patient’s file
  • D. The pet’s grooming facility
A

B. Vaccine manufacturer and US Department of Agriculture Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service (USDA-APHIS) Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB)

18
Q

Name two strategies to reduce the risk of vaccine reactions in animals with a history of adverse responses.

A
  • Administer an antihistamine injection 30 minutes before vaccination
  • Use a different brand or type of vaccine

Other strategies: measure antibody titers to determine if vaccination is necessary, choose nonadjuvanted vaccines, and space out core and noncore vaccines.

19
Q

Which type of flea and tick preventive is safe for dogs but toxic to cats?

A

Permethrin-containing products

These can cause severe neurologic signs in cats, including tremors, seizures, and death.

20
Q

True or False:

All flea and tick preventives for dogs and cats are topical.

A

False

Flea and tick preventives can be topical, oral, or injectable depending on the product and species.

21
Q

Horses traveling over state/provincial lines require testing for what disease, and what is the test called?

A

Equine infectious anemia; the Coggins test (AGID ELISA)

22
Q

What is the best practice for introducing a new horse to a stable or herd?

A

Ensure the horse has a negative Coggins test and place it in quarantine for 1 month before joining the general population

Quarantine allows time for health evaluation and prevents potential spread of infectious diseases to the resident herd.

23
Q

Name the core equine vaccines in North America.

A
  • Tetanus
  • Eastern and western equine encephalomyelitis (EEE and WEE)
  • West Nile virus (WNV)
  • Rabies

(according to the American Association of Equine Practitioners)

24
Q

List two risk-based vaccines for horses in North America.

A
  • Anthrax
  • Botulism
  • Equine herpesvirus (rhinopneumonitis)
  • Equine influenza
  • Equine viral arteritis
  • Leptospirosis
  • Potomac horse fever
  • Rotavirus
  • Rattlesnake bite
  • Strangles
  • Venezuelan equine encephalomyelitis (VEE)

(according to the American Association of Equine Practitioners)

25
Which is administered to a **horse** with **unknown vaccination history** and a **puncture wound**? Tetanus toxoid, tetanus antitoxin, or both.
Both | (usually in distant locations on the body) ## Footnote Tetanus toxoid is the vaccine for tetanus; antitoxin will bind any toxin currently in circulation.
26
When is best to vaccinate a **pregnant broodmare** to maximize **colostral** antibody transfer?
30 days prior to foaling ## Footnote The rest of year, follow a normal vaccination schedule (plus vaccinate against equine herpes virus abortion at 5, 7, 9, and 11 months' gestation)
27
At what age do we typically **initiate vaccination** in **foals**?
At three to four months | (when maternal antibody (from colostrum) begins to wane)
28
In **adult horses**, what is the recommended plan for **deworming**?
Perform fecal egg count (FEC) two to three times yearly and administer anthelmintics to those with high FEC ## Footnote Plus, in early winter, administer ivermectin–praziquantel or moxidectin–praziquantel to all horses to treat tapeworms and bots acquired over the summer and fall.
29
Why are **lamb tails docked**, and what is a potential **risk** if the tail is docked too short?
* To reduce fecal accumulation and the risk of flystrike * Docking too short can damage nerves and increase the risk of rectal prolapse
30
Why are horn buds removed or **goats** dehorned, and **when** is **horn bud removal ideally** performed?
* Removed to prevent injury to people and other animals * Ideally performed in the first week of life ## Footnote Early removal is simpler and less traumatic. Make sure to give tetanus antitoxin if the dam was not vaccinated.