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Clinical Anatomy Flashcards

Recall and apply knowledge of animal anatomy to identify normal structures and recognize pathological changes across species. (67 cards)

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1
Q

The liver of which domestic species does not have a cystic duct affiliated with it?

A

Horse

It comes from the gall bladder, which horses do not have.

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2
Q

Which of the associations is incorrect?

  • A. Buck/ram: hemodynamic penis, pronounced sigmoid flexure
  • B. Dog: glans penis with pars longa glandis distally, pars bulbus glandis proximally
  • C. Stallion: hemodynamic penis, no sigmoid flexure
  • D. Tom: may contain an os penis
A

A. Buck/ram: hemodynamic penis, pronounced sigmoid flexure

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3
Q

When drawing blood from a ferret for hematologic and biochemical panels, which two venipuncture sites are commonly used that provide the appropriate sample volume (about 1.5 mL)?

A
  • The jugular vein
  • The cranial vena cava
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4
Q

Between which liver lobes is the gallbladder located in dogs and cats?

A

Between the right medial lobe and the quadrate lobe

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5
Q

Which proportion of C-3 (third compartment of the stomach) in camelids contains true gastric glands?

A

The terminal one-fifth

(as opposed to the entire abomasum in ruminants)

A common point of contention: even though camelids ruminate, they are not in the same family as ruminants phylogenetically…they do not have a true rumen.

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6
Q

Which two embryological structures allow blood to bypass the lungs in the fetal circulation?

A
  • Foramen ovale
  • Ductus arteriosus
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7
Q

The intercapital ligament connects the heads of which ribs in dogs/cats?

A

Ribs 2-11

(a reason thoracic intervertebral disc disease is less common in dogs)

The ligament connecting the heads of the 11th pair of ribs is smaller than the others.

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8
Q

In the pelvic limb, the flexor (withdrawal) reflex is mediated by which nerve?

A

The sciatic nerve

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9
Q

The abdominal part of the caudal vena cava and the azygos vein are formed from which embryological vessels?

A

The caudal cardinal veins

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10
Q

Your one-day-old male patient urinates, and you notice that instead of coming from the penis, the urine emerges from the umbilicus.

What is the embryologic defect?

A

Patent urachus

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11
Q

After leaving the heart, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are joined (attached) by what distinct structure in a normal adult?

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

(the embryonic remnant of the ductus arteriosus)

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12
Q

Intussusceptum, intussuscipiens: which is on the inside, and which is on the outside?

A

An intussusception has an invaginated intussusceptum, surrounded by the intussuscipiens

Way to remember: the intussuscipiens is the recipient

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13
Q

What is the name of the congenital sternal malformation where the caudal sternum has a dorsal deviation into the thoracic cavity?

A

Pectus excavatum

The opposite, where the sternum projects ventrally (outward), is “pectus carinatum.”

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14
Q

What are the three main components of the intervertebral disc?

A
  • Nucleus pulposus
  • Annulus fibrosus
  • Cartilaginous end-plates
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15
Q

A Salter-Harris type I fracture has a fracture line that runs through which part of the bone?

A

Physis

There are five types of Salter-Harris fractures, distinguished by fracture configuration.

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16
Q

Which nerve is motor innervation to the trapezius muscle?

A

Spinal accessory nerve

(cranial nerve XI)

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17
Q

Where in the body is the greater trochanter found?

A

On the proximal femur, lateral to the femoral head

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18
Q

Name three of the four developmental zones of the physis.

A
  • Reserve
  • Proliferative
  • Hypertrophic
  • Mineralization
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19
Q

Which stifle structure is primarily responsible for preventing caudal displacement of the femur and cranial displacement of the tibia?

A

The cranial cruciate ligament

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20
Q

Crop, gizzard, proventriculus: in which order do they occur in the avian gastrointestinal tract, and what is the function of each?

A

From oral to aboral:

  1. Crop: storage and softening of food
  2. Proventriculus: luminal secretion of HCl for digestion
  3. Gizzard: grinding and digesting tough food
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21
Q

Typhlitis is inflammation of which organ?

A

The cecum

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22
Q

Define:

“Manica flexoria”

(in horses)

A

The portion of the superficial digital flexor tendon that encircles the deep digital flexor tendon just above the level of the proximal sesamoid bones

(“manica” means hand)

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23
Q

When reducing an elbow luxation, the elbow is flexed in order to rotate and hook which structure in the olecranon fossa?

A

The anconeal process of the ulna

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24
Q

Which five muscles contribute to the common calcaneal (Achilles) tendon in the dog?

A
  1. Superficial digital flexor
  2. Gastrocnemius
  3. Biceps femoris
  4. Semitendinosus
  5. Gracilis
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25
What are the **three arteries** that supply the **equine uterus**?
* The uterine branch of the ovarian artery * The uterine artery (from the origin of the external iliac artery) * The uterine branch of the vaginal artery
26
Turtles have a **plastron** and a **carapace**. Which is dorsal and which is ventral? And are there **scutes** on the carapace, the plastron, or both?
Both the carapace (dorsal) and plastron (ventral) have scutes | (keratinized epidermal outermost coverings)
27
What are the **three chambers** of the avian cloaca?
* Coprodeum * Urodeum * Proctodeum
28
What is the difference between the number of incisors in rodents versus lagomorphs?
* Rodents have 4 incisors: 2 upper, 2 lower * Lagomorphs have 6: the same 4 as rodents plus 2 small additional incisors directly behind the upper incisors | (the additional incisors in rabbits are called "peg teeth")
29
In **snakes**, the **cloaca** receives the products of which of the following? * A. Urinary and digestive systems * B. Urinary and reproductive systems * C. Urinary, digestive, and reproductive systems
C. Urinary, digestive, and reproductive systems
30
Describe the gross anatomic structure of the **rabbit uterus**?
Duplex, with 2 cervices
31
The **foramen ovale** of the heart is an opening in which structure in the fetus?
The interatrial septum | (*in utero*)
32
The term "**trigone**" refers to an anatomic region in which organ?
Urinary bladder ## Footnote It is a triangular area within the bladder where the two ureters enter and the urethra exits.
33
The **nuchal ligament** is **absent** in which domestic animal species?
* Cat * Pig
34
In the adult, **hematopoietically active bone marrow** is most often collected from which anatomical **locations**? In the...Horse? Dog? Cat?
* Horse: sternum * Dog and cat: proximal humerus ## Footnote Other commonly used sites are the proximal femur in small cats or toy-breed dogs, and the iliac crest in medium to large dogs.
35
What does the **anticlinal space** refer to and **where** is it approximately found in the **cat and dog**?
The intervertebral space where the dorsal spinous processes are most nearly perpendicular to the vertebral column | (marks the point at which their orientation changes direction) ## Footnote Cats and dogs: T10/11 Horses: T15 Cattle: T13
36
Which **embryologic vessel** carries **oxygenated maternal blood** from the placenta to the fetal systemic circulation?
Umbilical vein ## Footnote It connects to the ductus venosus and then the fetal heart.
37
How can you distinguish a **hiatal hernia** from a **gastroesophageal (G-E) intussusception**?
* Hiatal hernia: stomach protrudes into the thorax alongside the esophagus * G-E intussusception: stomach is telescoped or inverted into the esophagus
38
**Portosystemic vascular anomalies** in dogs and cats. Which type is most common? * A. Acquired extrahepatic portosystemic shunts * B. Congenital extrahepatic portosystemic shunts (CEPSS) * C. Acquired intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (IHPSS) * D. Congenital intrahepatic portosystemic shunts
B. CEPSS accounts for approximately 65% of single shunts in dogs and also occurs in cats ## Footnote Congenital IHPSSs comprise ~ 35% of single shunts in dogs and ~ 10% in cats.
39
Which **compartment** of the stomach is the **largest** and is comprised of two sacs in **camelids**?
C-1
40
What is the anatomical term for the bilobed, **oil-producing gland** located on the dorsal base of the tail in most **birds**?
Uropygial (preen) gland ## Footnote Birds use their beak to distribute the oily substance it secretes during preening; helps with waterproofing feathers and skin.
41
How many pairs of air sacs are typically present in an avian embryo, and do these sacs participate directly in gas exchange?
* Six pairs (which fuse into variable numbers in adults) * No, air sacs do not participate in gas exchange ## Footnote Air sacs are thin, avascular membranes that store and move air but lack respiratory surfaces for gas exchange.
42
When tube-feeding a pet bird, you must choose to pass the tube directly into a central round opening at the base of the tongue or to the side of that opening. **Which do you choose and why?**
To the side, into the esophagus ## Footnote The central round opening at the base of the tongue is the tracheal opening.
43
What is **one** of the two main **functions** of the **avian syrinx**?
* Produce vocal sounds * Help prevent bronchial collapse | (especially during expiration) ## Footnote The syrinx can be tracheal, bronchial, or tracheobronchial and lies just before bifurcation.
44
What is the **largest organ** in the **rabbit's** abdomen, containing approximately 40% of the contents of the gastrointestinal tract?
Cecum ## Footnote It is the main site for microbial fermentation of fibrous material.
45
Which ovary is typically functional in adult female birds?
Left ## Footnote In most adult female birds, only the left ovary and oviduct develop fully; the right side regresses to reduce body weight for flight.
46
Which **adrenal gland** of **ferrets** is more difficult to surgically remove, and why?
The right, because it is attached to the caudal vena cava and near the liver
47
How many **cardiac chambers** are there in **snakes and lizards**, and which chambers are they?
Three: right atrium, left atrium, and single (incompletely divided) ventricle
48
What is the anatomical term for the **back side of the hind distal limb** (below the tarsus) - whether a horse, dog, cat, etc.?
Plantar | (The back side of the front distal limb is called "palmar" below the carpus) ## Footnote The front is called "dorsal" in thoracic and pelvic limbs. In horses, the bottom of the foot itself is the solar surface.
49
Name the nerves that run through the **guttural pouch** of horses.
Cranial nerves (CN) 9, 10, 11, and 12 ## Footnote CN 7 and 8 are closely adjacent and often concurrently affected by guttural pouch disease. The internal and external carotid arteries, cranial sympathetic ganglion, and medial retropharyngeal lymph nodes also are in the guttural pouch.
50
What is the term for a **dog** with a **short, broad skull** in which the bones of the skull are shortened relative to the soft tissues? | (e.g., soft palate and pharynx)
Brachycephalic airway syndrome ## Footnote This results in multiple anatomic abnormalities that narrow the upper airway and lead to partial upper airway obstruction, with findings such as stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, and everted laryngeal saccules.
51
Which veterinary species is an **obligate nasal breather**, and why?
* Horses * The long soft palate lies beneath the epiglottis, preventing airflow from the mouth to the trachea and making nasal breathing mandatory
52
Which veterinary species classically have an **incomplete bony orbit**?
Dogs and cats ## Footnote The lateral aspect of the orbit is formed by the orbital ligament.
53
Which lung lobe of **dogs and cats** is most commonly affected by **aspiration pneumonia**, and why?
* The right middle lung lobe * Its bronchus branches ventrally from the right primary bronchus, allowing gravity-dependent pooling of aspirated material in upright or sternal positions ## Footnote In horses the first bronchus to leave the trachea goes to the right cranial lung lobe.
54
On thoracic auscultation, **bronchovesicular sounds** are generated by: * A. Audible airflow through small airways of the lung * B. Air bubbling through fluid in alveoli * C. Turbulent airflow through narrowed bronchioles during expiration * D. Friction between inflamed pleural surfaces
A. Audible airflow through small airways of the lung ## Footnote Bronchovesicular sounds are loudest near the tracheobronchial bifurcation, diminishing toward the lung periphery. Other answer choices describe crackles (B), wheezes (C), and pleural friction rubs (D).
55
What is the most common **vascular ring anomaly** in **dogs and cats**, and what are the typical **clinical signs**?
* Persistent right aortic arch (PRAA) * Clinical signs: regurgitation of solid food, often noticed in young animals, which may be mistaken for vomiting ## Footnote The esophagus is trapped between the PRAA (4th arch), the base of the heart, and the ligamentum arteriosum, leading to obstruction.
56
What comprises the **linea alba**?
Aponeuroses of the external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, and transversus abdominis muscles ## Footnote The linea alba is a fibrous midline structure of good tensile strength, formed by the fusion of abdominal muscle aponeuroses, providing a relatively avascular plane for safe surgical access.
57
During an **ovariohysterectomy** in a bitch or queen with **pyometra**, why must the surgeon be careful not to apply **pressure** to the uterine horns?
To avoid forcing purulent material from the infected uterus into the oviducts and peritoneal cavity (which could cause peritonitis) ## Footnote The proximal uterine tube is open to the peritoneal cavity, so pressure on the uterine horns can inadvertently spread infection.
58
Which **diarthrodial joint** in **horses** **lacks collateral ligaments**, thus stability is provided by joint capsule and surrounding muscles/tendons?
Shoulder (glenohumeral or scapulohumeral) joint
59
A Thoroughbred **racehorse** presents as a **“roarer”** with an abnormal inspiratory noise. What is the **official term** for this condition, and which muscle/nerve **dysfunction** causes it?
* Official term: recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (RLN) * Affected muscle/nerve: dysfunction of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve causes paralysis of the cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle ## Footnote This leads to left-sided laryngeal abduction failure, producing the characteristic inspiratory “roaring” noise.
60
Name one reason **horses** **cannot vomit**.
* The muscular cardiac sphincter at the gastroesophageal junction * The esophagus enters the stomach at an oblique angle | (combination of these features prevents retrograde movement of ingesta) ## Footnote This is why nasogastric intubation is critical in colic cases.
61
In **horses**, over which ligament does a classic **left dorsal displacement of the large colon** occur?
Nephrosplenic ligament: between the left kidney and the spleen ## Footnote The left ascending colon (in its entirety or the pelvic flexure) becomes trapped over the nephrosplenic ligament, which can ventrally displace the spleen.
62
Where is the **large colon** attached in the horse? | (ascending colon)
Only on the right side of the abdomen: the right ventral colon attaches to the cecum, and the right dorsal colon attaches to the dorsal body wall | (via the cecocolic ligament and dorsal mesocolon, respectively) ## Footnote Thus, the large colon is highly mobile, which allows displacements and volvulus to occur.
63
On which **digit** do **horses** bear weight?
The third digit - third metacarpal/metatarsal bone and the first (proximal), second (middle), and third (distal) phalanx ## Footnote Horses are single-toed (monodactyl) ungulates, with the third digit bearing nearly all the weight, while the second and fourth digits form the small vestigial splint bones (with no weight-bearing components in the phalanges).
64
What allows a **horse to stand** for long periods **without fatigue**?
The passive stay apparatus ## Footnote It uses ligaments, tendons, and muscle arrangements in both the pelvic and thoracic limbs to lock joints in extension with minimal muscular effort.
65
Which veterinary species has a **complete mediastinum**?
Cattle and other ruminants | (horses, dogs, cats, and pigs have a fenestrated mediastinum) ## Footnote The complete mediastinum in cattle separates the two thoracic cavities, so pleural infections, masses, or pneumothorax usually remain unilateral, limiting spread to the opposite hemithorax but potentially causing localized esophageal or vagal dysfunction.
66
# True or False: **Bovine kidneys** are lobulated and lack a pelvis.
TRUE ## Footnote Note: sheep and goat kidneys are not lobulated and grossly look similar to canine/feline.
67
Why might a **bird** with a **renal tumor** or enlargement present primarily with **lameness**?
* Enlarged kidneys can compress the lumbar plexus or spinal nerves (affecting the pelvic limbs) * The sciatic nerve runs through the renal parenchyma ## Footnote Avian kidneys are closely associated with neural plexuses and major vessels.
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